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Discrete random variables and the binomial distribution: WACE Year 12 Mathematics Methods Unit 3

Syllabus dot point

“Construct discrete probability distributions, calculate expected value and variance, and apply the binomial distribution to repeated independent trials”

9 min read

Quick answer

Build a discrete probability distribution so probabilities sum to one, compute E(X)=∑x P(X=x)E(X)=\sum x\,P(X=x) and variance, and use the binomial distribution P(X=k)=(nk)pk(1−p)n−kP(X=k)=\binom{n}{k}p^{k}(1-p)^{n-k} with mean npnp and variance np(1−p)np(1-p).

Jump to a section
  1. What this dot point is asking
  2. Discrete probability distributions
  3. Expected value and variance
  4. The binomial distribution
  5. Cumulative probabilities
  6. Recognising when the binomial applies
  7. Why mean and variance are npnp and np(1−p)np(1-p)
  8. Exam-style questions

What this dot point is asking

SCSA Unit 3 introduces discrete random variables: variables that take countable, separate values each with an attached probability. You must construct distributions, compute summary measures, and recognise and apply the binomial distribution for a fixed number of independent success-or-failure trials.

Discrete probability distributions

A discrete random variable XX has a probability distribution listing each value and its probability. Two conditions must hold:

Distribution conditions

0≤P(X=x)≤1for every x,∑xP(X=x)=1.0 \le P(X = x) \le 1 \quad \text{for every } x, \qquad \sum_x P(X = x) = 1.

The second condition is the most common way SCSA asks you to find an unknown probability: set the sum equal to one and solve.

Expected value and variance

Mean and variance of a discrete variable

E(X)=μ=∑xx P(X=x)E(X) = \mu = \sum_x x\,P(X = x)

Var(X)=σ2=∑x(x−μ)2P(X=x)=E(X2)−[E(X)]2\mathrm{Var}(X) = \sigma^2 = \sum_x (x - \mu)^2 P(X = x) = E(X^2) - [E(X)]^2

SD(X)=σ=Var(X)\mathrm{SD}(X) = \sigma = \sqrt{\mathrm{Var}(X)}

The form Var(X)=E(X2)−[E(X)]2\mathrm{Var}(X) = E(X^2) - [E(X)]^2 is usually faster by hand because it avoids squaring deviations.

Mean and variance from a table

A spinner produces XX with distribution P(X=1)=0.2P(X=1)=0.2, P(X=2)=0.5P(X=2)=0.5, P(X=3)=0.3P(X=3)=0.3. We find E(X)E(X) and Var(X)\mathrm{Var}(X).

Step 1: Check the distribution is valid

Before calculating summary measures, verify that the probabilities sum to one.

0.2+0.5+0.3=1.✓0.2 + 0.5 + 0.3 = 1. \quad\checkmark

This confirms the distribution is valid and that the expected value will be computed from a complete set of probabilities.

Step 2: Calculate the expected value

Multiply each value by its probability and sum the products.

E(X)=1(0.2)+2(0.5)+3(0.3)=0.2+1.0+0.9=2.1.E(X) = 1(0.2) + 2(0.5) + 3(0.3) = 0.2 + 1.0 + 0.9 = 2.1.

The expected value represents the long-run average outcome across many spins of the spinner.

Step 3: Calculate E(X2)E(X^2)

Square each value, weight by its probability, and sum. This is needed for the shortcut variance formula.

E(X2)=12(0.2)+22(0.5)+32(0.3)=0.2+2.0+2.7=4.9.E(X^2) = 1^2(0.2) + 2^2(0.5) + 3^2(0.3) = 0.2 + 2.0 + 2.7 = 4.9.

Step 4: Calculate the variance

Apply the shortcut Var(X)=E(X2)−[E(X)]2\mathrm{Var}(X)=E(X^2)-[E(X)]^2, which avoids squaring deviations from the mean.

Var(X)=4.9−2.12=4.9−4.41=0.49.\mathrm{Var}(X) = 4.9 - 2.1^2 = 4.9 - 4.41 = 0.49.

Final answer: E(X)=2.1E(X)=2.1, Var(X)=0.49\mathrm{Var}(X)=0.49, σ=0.49=0.7\sigma=\sqrt{0.49}=0.7. Markers reward the validity check, correct weighted sums, and use of the E(X2)−μ2E(X^2)-\mu^2 shortcut.

The binomial distribution

A binomial random variable counts the number of successes in nn independent trials, each with the same probability pp of success. The requirements are: a fixed number of trials, two outcomes per trial, constant pp, and independence.

Binomial probability, mean and variance

For X∼B(n,p)X \sim \mathrm{B}(n, p),

P(X=k)=(nk)pk(1−p)n−k,k=0,1,…,n,P(X = k) = \binom{n}{k} p^{k} (1-p)^{n-k}, \quad k = 0,1,\dots,n,

E(X)=np,Var(X)=np(1−p).E(X) = np, \qquad \mathrm{Var}(X) = np(1-p).

Here (nk)=n!k! (n−k)!\binom{n}{k} = \dfrac{n!}{k!\,(n-k)!} counts the number of ways to arrange kk successes among nn trials.

A binomial calculation

A multiple-choice test has 1010 questions and each answer is guessed independently with p=0.25p=0.25. We find the probability of exactly 33 correct and the mean number correct.

Step 1: Identify the binomial parameters

The number of correct answers XX counts successes in n=10n=10 independent trials, each with constant success probability p=0.25p=0.25, so X∼B(10,0.25)X\sim\mathrm{B}(10,0.25). Stating the distribution first makes explicit which formula and which parameters apply.

Step 2: Apply the binomial formula for P(X=3)P(X=3)

Substitute n=10n=10, k=3k=3, p=0.25p=0.25 and 1−p=0.751-p=0.75 into the binomial formula.

P(X=3)=(103)(0.25)3(0.75)7.P(X = 3) = \binom{10}{3}(0.25)^{3}(0.75)^{7}.

Compute each factor separately to keep the arithmetic manageable.

(103)=120,(0.25)3=0.015625,(0.75)7≈0.133484.\binom{10}{3} = 120, \qquad (0.25)^3 = 0.015625, \qquad (0.75)^7 \approx 0.133484.

P(X=3)=120×0.015625×0.133484≈0.2503.P(X = 3) = 120 \times 0.015625 \times 0.133484 \approx 0.2503.

Step 3: State the mean

Use the binomial mean formula, which follows directly from the parameters.

E(X)=np=10×0.25=2.5,Var(X)=np(1−p)=10×0.25×0.75=1.875.E(X) = np = 10 \times 0.25 = 2.5, \qquad \mathrm{Var}(X)=np(1-p)=10\times 0.25\times 0.75=1.875.

Final answer: P(X=3)≈0.2503P(X=3)\approx 0.2503, so there is about a 25%25\% chance of exactly 33 correct. The mean is E(X)=2.5E(X)=2.5. Markers reward the correct binomial coefficient, the matching powers of pp and 1−p1-p, and a sensible interpretation.

Cumulative probabilities

"At least" and "at most" questions require summing several terms, or using the complement. For example P(X≥1)=1−P(X=0)P(X \ge 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) is far faster than adding ten terms. In the calculator-assumed section, binomial cumulative functions handle these directly.

Recognising when the binomial applies

Before any calculation, confirm the four binomial conditions: a fixed number of trials nn, exactly two outcomes per trial, a constant success probability pp, and independent trials. The independence condition is the one most often broken. Sampling without replacement from a small population changes pp from trial to trial, so it is not binomial; sampling from a very large population (or with replacement) keeps pp effectively constant and the binomial model is valid. SCSA questions frequently test this judgement by describing a scenario and asking whether the binomial is appropriate, so state the conditions explicitly when justifying your model.

Why mean and variance are npnp and np(1−p)np(1-p)

A binomial variable is the sum of nn independent Bernoulli trials, each with mean pp and variance p(1−p)p(1-p). Because expectation is additive, the means add to npnp; because the trials are independent, the variances also add, giving np(1−p)np(1-p). This is why understanding the single-trial Bernoulli case makes the binomial summary measures intuitive rather than something to memorise.

Common errors
Probabilities not summing to one
Always check ∑P(X=x)=1\sum P(X=x)=1 before computing a mean; an unknown is often found from this condition.
Swapping pp and 1−p1-p powers
In (nk)pk(1−p)n−k\binom{n}{k}p^{k}(1-p)^{n-k} the exponent on pp is the number of successes kk, and the exponent on 1−p1-p is the number of failures n−kn-k.
Using np(1−p)np(1-p) as the standard deviation
That expression is the variance; the standard deviation is its square root, np(1−p)\sqrt{np(1-p)}.
Misreading "at least" and "at most"
P(X≥2)P(X \ge 2) includes X=2X = 2; use the complement 1−P(X≤1)1 - P(X \le 1) to avoid long sums.

Exam-style questions

Questions in the style of SCSA exam questions on this dot point, each with a worked answer. They are written by ExamExplained unless tagged "Past paper"; the year shows the paper a question is modelled on.

WACE 2021-style8 marks
Calculator-assumed. A factory's items are independently defective with probability p=0.04p=0.04. A quality inspector tests 2525 items. Let XX be the number defective. (a) State the distribution of XX. (b) Find E(X)E(X) and Var(X)\mathrm{Var}(X). (c) Find P(X=0)P(X=0). (d) Find P(X≥2)P(X\ge 2).
Show worked answer →

A full binomial question with summary measures and cumulative probabilities.

(a) X∼B(25,0.04)X\sim\mathrm{B}(25,0.04): 2525 independent trials, two outcomes, constant p=0.04p=0.04.

(b) E(X)=np=25×0.04=1E(X)=np=25\times 0.04=1; Var(X)=np(1−p)=25×0.04×0.96=0.96\mathrm{Var}(X)=np(1-p)=25\times 0.04\times 0.96=0.96.

(c) P(X=0)=(0.96)25≈0.360P(X=0)=(0.96)^{25}\approx 0.360.

(d) Use the complement: P(X≥2)=1−P(X≤1)=1−[(0.96)25+25(0.04)(0.96)24]≈1−(0.360+0.375)=0.265P(X\ge 2)=1-P(X\le 1)=1-\bigl[(0.96)^{25}+25(0.04)(0.96)^{24}\bigr]\approx 1-(0.360+0.375)=0.265.

Markers reward the stated distribution, npnp and np(1−p)np(1-p), the exact P(X=0)P(X=0), and the complement in (d).

WACE 2023-style5 marks
Calculator-free. A fair coin is tossed 44 times. Let XX be the number of heads. (a) Find E(X)E(X) and Var(X)\mathrm{Var}(X). (b) Find P(X=2)P(X=2).
Show worked answer →

A calculator-free binomial with p=0.5p=0.5.

(a) X∼B(4,0.5)X\sim\mathrm{B}(4,0.5), so E(X)=np=4(0.5)=2E(X)=np=4(0.5)=2 and Var(X)=np(1−p)=4(0.5)(0.5)=1\mathrm{Var}(X)=np(1-p)=4(0.5)(0.5)=1.

(b) P(X=2)=(42)(0.5)2(0.5)2=6×116=616=38=0.375P(X=2)=\binom{4}{2}(0.5)^{2}(0.5)^{2}=6\times\dfrac{1}{16}=\dfrac{6}{16}=\dfrac{3}{8}=0.375.

Markers reward npnp and np(1−p)np(1-p) and the exact probability 38\dfrac{3}{8}.

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