HSC PDHPE (legacy 2012) 2025
Walkthrough of the 2025 HSC PDHPE exam: what the core and options assessed, timing, five original exam-style worked questions (training zones, health status data, determinants, psychology, heat and fluid in Sports Medicine) and common errors drawn from the marking guidelines.
- Marks
- 100
- Time
- 180 min
- Authority
- NESA
- Updated
What this paper assessed
The 2025 HSC Personal Development, Health and Physical Education paper was written for the previous (legacy) syllabus. It tested both core modules and all five options.
Core 1: Health Priorities in Australia. The multiple-choice section covered the groups that experience health inequities and the determinants behind them, social justice principles, the relative strengths of Medicare and private health insurance, circulatory diseases, complementary health care alongside conventional treatment, institutional versus non-institutional services, the Ottawa Charter action areas, the effect of new treatments and technologies on equity of access, and national epidemiological trends in causes of death. In the short-answer section, students had to:
- identify risk factors for one priority condition, chosen from a short list
- explain how infant mortality works as a measure of population health status
- explain how an ageing population affects the health workforce
- explain what individuals, communities and governments each do to build environments that support health.
Core 2: Factors Affecting Performance. The multiple-choice questions covered types of training, recovery strategies, the nature of skills, practice methods, characteristics of the learner, valid and reliable fitness tests, arousal and performance, nutrition before, during and after competition, progressive overload for strength, and the energy systems during recovery between sprints. The short answers asked about:
- the effects of caffeine as a supplement
- goal setting as a motivator
- using a relaxation technique to manage anxiety
- an 8-mark analysis linking training thresholds to physiological adaptations, with aerobic and resistance examples.
Section II options. Students answered two of the five options. Each option had a 3-mark and a 5-mark part, then a 12-mark extended response:
- The Health of Young People: self-concept, community service and managing developmental aspects.
- Sport and Physical Activity in Australian Society: media metaphors, media coverage of extreme sports and sport used for political purposes.
- Sports Medicine: acclimatisation, fluid intake and sweating for cooling, and rehabilitation of a shoulder injury.
- Improving Performance: how suitable a training method is, how to train safely and the elements of a training session.
- Equity and Health: involving the target group, skills and education in health promotion, and the factors behind health inequities for one population group.
Structure and timing
The cover gives 5 minutes reading time and 3 hours working time for 100 marks. That works out to minutes per mark.
| Section | Questions | Marks | Suggested time on the paper | Minutes per mark |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Section I Part A | 1 to 20 (multiple choice) | 20 | about 40 minutes | |
| Section I Part B | 21 to 27 (short answer) | 40 | about 1 hour 10 minutes | |
| Section II | Two of 28 to 32 (options) | 40 | about 1 hour 10 minutes |
Suggested split:
- Part A: Aim to finish in 30 to 35 minutes and bank the extra time for Part B. Several items are two-column table questions, so check both columns before you pick an option.
- Part B: About 5 to 6 minutes for each 3 or 4 mark item, and about 14 minutes for each 8-mark item. The 8-mark items (Questions 26 and 27 in 2025) reward depth, so spend 2 minutes planning them.
- Section II: minutes for each option. Within an option, allow about 5 minutes for part (a)(i), about 9 minutes for (a)(ii) and about 21 minutes for the 12-mark part (b), with 2 to 3 minutes of that spent planning your judgement.
Worked practice questions (exam-style)
These are original questions. They target the same syllabus areas the 2025 paper assessed, but none of them reproduces a NESA question.
Question 1 (6 marks): Jordan is a 16-year-old rower. Their coach uses the estimate maximum heart rate , an aerobic training zone of 70% to 85% of maximum heart rate, and a strength-training load of 80% to 90% of one repetition maximum (1 RM). Jordan's 1 RM for the leg press is 90 kg. (a) Calculate Jordan's aerobic training zone. (2 marks) (b) Calculate Jordan's strength-training load range. (1 mark) (c) Jordan's program has 40-minute ergometer sessions and heavy leg-press sets. Using your answers to (a) and (b), explain why sessions below these values would give little improvement, naming the adaptation each type of session targets. (3 marks)
Step 1: Maximum heart rate
Step 2: Aerobic training zone
The lower value is the aerobic training threshold. That is the minimum intensity needed to produce an aerobic training effect.
Step 3: Strength load range
Step 4: Linking thresholds to adaptations
- Aerobic: Suppose Jordan does 40-minute continuous ergometer sessions three times a week, keeping the heart rate between about 143 and 173 bpm. The heart then gets a repeated overload, and the left ventricle adapts so that stroke volume increases. More blood is pumped per beat, so more oxygen reaches the working muscles and resting heart rate falls. Below about 143 bpm the load is too light to trigger this change. Well above the upper limit, the work becomes mostly anaerobic.
- Resistance: Suppose Jordan does 3 sets of 4 to 6 leg-press repetitions at 72 to 81 kg. The muscle is loaded beyond what it normally handles, which causes muscle hypertrophy (larger fibres) and better recruitment of fast-twitch fibres, so strength increases. At a much lighter load, such as 60% (54 kg) for many repetitions, the adaptation shifts towards muscular endurance.
The relationship is cause and effect. An adaptation only happens once the threshold is reached, and it only keeps going if the load is progressively raised as fitness improves.
Final answer: MHR is 204 bpm, so the aerobic zone is about 143 to 173 bpm and the strength load is 72 to 81 kg. Training at or above these thresholds overloads the heart, which increases stroke volume and lowers resting heart rate, and overloads the leg muscles, which causes hypertrophy and greater strength.
Question 2 (6 marks): The table shows hypothetical infant mortality rates (deaths in the first year of life per 1000 live births) for two regions of a fictional state. (a) Calculate the percentage fall in each region's rate and the ratio of Region Q's rate to Region P's in each year. (2 marks) (b) Explain what the data suggests about health status and health inequity in the two regions. (4 marks)
| Region | 2005 | 2020 |
|---|---|---|
| P (major city) | 5.0 | 3.5 |
| Q (remote) | 12.0 | 9.0 |
Step 1: Percentage fall
Step 2: Rate ratio (Q to P)
The absolute gap narrowed from 7.0 to 5.5 deaths per 1000 live births. The relative gap widened, because Region P improved faster.
Step 3: Interpreting the data
- Why infant mortality is a useful measure: Infants are very sensitive to their environment. Their survival depends on maternal health, antenatal care, safe birthing services, sanitation, nutrition and vaccination. The rate therefore sums up how well a population's living conditions and health services are working.
- Health status: Both regions improved, which points to better services or conditions overall.
- Inequity: Region Q's infants are still about 2.4 to 2.6 times as likely to die in the first year. This is consistent with remote-area determinants such as distance to birthing and neonatal intensive care services, fewer health workers, and higher costs of travel and fresh food.
- Judgement: The narrowing absolute gap is progress. The widening ratio suggests that the gains have gone more to the already advantaged region, so services should be targeted at Region Q, in line with social justice principles.
Final answer: P fell 30% and Q fell 25%. The Q to P ratio rose from 2.4 to about 2.57. Both regions' health status improved, but remote infants still face a large and relatively widening disadvantage, which points to inequity in access to services.
Question 3 (8 marks): Coalbrook is a fictional mining town about 400 km from the nearest capital city. Most of its mine workforce are men aged 35 to 60 who live in the mining camp on fly-in fly-out rosters. The local clinic reports high rates of cardiovascular disease risk factors. Analyse how the sociocultural, socioeconomic and environmental determinants interact to influence cardiovascular disease in this group, and propose ONE health promotion strategy linked to an Ottawa Charter action area.
Plan: determinants and how they interact
- Sociocultural: A workplace culture of long shifts, "toughing it out" and alcohol as the main way to socialise. Men may put off seeing a doctor about symptoms such as chest pain because asking for help is seen as weakness.
- Socioeconomic: Incomes are high, but education levels vary. More money does not automatically bring health literacy, and some workers spend on high-fat takeaway food and alcohol.
- Environmental: Remote location, few fresh-food outlets, a GP who visits only now and then, and 12-hour shifts that leave little time or daylight for exercise.
Analysis: the interrelationship
The determinants reinforce each other. Remoteness limits access to preventive screening such as blood pressure and cholesterol checks. The masculine work culture lowers willingness to use even the services that do exist. Shift work adds to physical inactivity and poor diet. Income cannot buy services that are not there. Together, these factors increase exposure to the modifiable risk factors (high blood pressure, high blood cholesterol, smoking, inactivity, overweight) that cause atherosclerosis. That is why the burden is concentrated in this group.
Strategy
Create supportive environments (with reorient health services): the mining company and the local health district jointly fund an on-site health check van at shift change. It offers free blood pressure and cholesterol screening, healthier meals in the camp canteen and a staffed gym open around the clock. Because it is at work and free, it removes the barriers of access and time, and it makes health checks normal practice in the peer group.
Final answer: Cardiovascular risk in Coalbrook comes from determinants that compound one another: remoteness limits services, work culture discourages using them, and shift conditions promote risk behaviours. A workplace-based supportive environment strategy works best because it tackles access, time and culture together.
Question 4 (5 marks): A basketball player shoots poorly from the free-throw line late in close games. Explain how mental rehearsal and concentration skills could help this player manage anxiety and reach an optimum level of arousal.
Step 1: Diagnose the problem
A free throw is a closed, self-paced, fine-motor skill. Performance on this kind of skill suffers when arousal goes past the optimum (the inverted-U idea). Late in a close game, state anxiety rises and brings muscle tension, a faster heart rate and a narrowing of attention towards worry ("What if I miss?").
Step 2: Mental rehearsal
The player practises the shot vividly in their mind at training, with the crowd noise and the score included. They picture the routine (three bounces, a breath, eyes on the rim) and a successful make. When the real situation comes, it feels familiar and not threatening, which lowers anxiety. Rehearsing the movement pattern also primes the correct technique.
Step 3: Concentration skills
The player uses a pre-shot routine and a cue word such as "smooth". This narrows attention to the right cues, the rim and the release, and screens out distractions such as the crowd or the score. Attention stays on the task, not on thoughts about what might happen.
Step 4: Link to arousal
Together, these techniques bring arousal down from over-aroused towards the optimum level for a fine skill. Muscle tension falls and accuracy is restored.
Final answer: Mental rehearsal makes the pressure situation familiar, and a pre-shot routine keeps attention on the relevant cues. Both lower the player's anxiety and arousal to the moderate optimum that a fine, closed skill like the free throw needs.
Question 5 (12 marks, Sports Medicine option): Priya, a 70.0 kg hockey player from Hobart, will play a week-long tournament in Darwin in hot, humid conditions. In a trial session she weighs 70.0 kg before and 68.6 kg after, and drinks 0.8 L during play. (a) Calculate her percentage body-mass loss and the fluid she should drink to recover, using the guide of 1.5 L for every 1 kg lost. (2 marks) (b) To what extent can acclimatisation and fluid management protect an athlete like Priya from heat illness? (10 marks)
Step 1: Body-mass loss
A loss of about 2% of body mass is the level at which dehydration usually starts to impair endurance performance.
Step 2: Recovery fluid
Her total sweat loss was about L, because she also lost the 0.8 L she drank.
Overall judgement
To a large but not complete extent. Acclimatisation and planned drinking greatly reduce the risk, but high humidity limits how well sweat can cool the body, so event scheduling and heat policies are still needed.
Paragraph plan
- Acclimatisation (large effect). Training in the heat for about 10 to 14 days before the event (for example, arriving early or training in a heat chamber) makes the athlete start sweating earlier, sweat more, expand plasma volume and hold a lower heart rate at the same workload. Judgement: this is the single most effective preparation, but it needs planning time and is lost again after a few weeks away from the heat.
- Fluid before, during and after (large effect). Sweat only cools the body when it evaporates, and sweating can only continue if blood volume is maintained. Drinking before the match, then small regular amounts at breaks, keeps plasma volume up so blood can carry heat to the skin. Using Priya's figures, she should aim to limit losses below 2% and replace about 2.1 L afterwards, with sodium or a sports drink for long sessions. Judgement: essential, and cheap, but only as effective as the athlete's adherence.
- Limits: humidity and individual factors (reduces the extent). In humid air, sweat drips off instead of evaporating, so even a well-hydrated, acclimatised athlete still gains heat. Illness, poor fitness or a recent fever raise the risk further. Judgement: this is why preparation alone cannot guarantee safety.
- Other controls that close the gap. Light, loose clothing, shade and cooling (ice towels) at breaks, and sporting bodies' extreme heat policies that reschedule or shorten play. Judgement: these are needed alongside acclimatisation and fluids, not instead of them.
A top-band response gives a judgement in every paragraph and supports each one with a specific example.
Final answer: Priya lost 1.4 kg, which is 2.0% of body mass, so she should drink about 2.1 L to recover. Acclimatisation and planned fluid intake protect athletes to a large extent, but humidity and individual factors mean heat illness can still occur, so they must be combined with clothing, cooling and modified scheduling.
Common errors students made
NESA did not publish marking feedback (Notes from the Marking Centre) for the 2025 HSC PDHPE paper. The points below are therefore drawn only from the way the official marking guidelines separate the mark bands. They are not reports of what students actually wrote.
- Covering one adaptation or one training type when the question asks for two. For the training-thresholds question, the top bands required an analysis of the relationship with two physiological adaptations, plus examples of both aerobic and resistance training. Responses that only outline features of thresholds or adaptations sit in the 2 to 3 band.
- Leaving out one of the three groups. The 4 to 5 band for the supportive-environments question allowed responses that dealt with individuals, communities or governments separately. The top two bands expected all three to be explained, with relevant (and, for full marks, detailed) examples.
- Describing when the verb says explain. For the ageing-population question, a description of the impact capped the response at 3 marks. A sound or thorough explanation was needed to reach 4 or 5 marks.
- No example in the relaxation question. In the 5-mark relaxation-technique question, the 4-mark and 5-mark bands both required an example. A description alone sat at 3 marks.
- Missing the "to what extent" or "justify" judgement in the 12-mark parts. In every option, the 11 to 12 band needed clear, informed judgements (or a full justification), a coherent structure from start to finish and a wide spread of examples. In the 5 to 7 band, responses only needed some judgement (Young People, Sport and Society) or only a description (Sports Medicine, Improving Performance, Equity and Health).
- Addressing only part of a combined requirement. In Sports Medicine, the 5 to 7 band accepted heat and/or cold with progressive mobilisation. The top bands expected both heat and cold, plus mobilisation, all justified for the particular injury. In the Equity and Health and Young People extended responses, the top bands were tied to discussing THREE factors or aspects.
- Giving only one risk factor. Full marks on the risk-factors question needed two risk factors outlined for a single condition. A response that showed partial understanding of a risk factor was capped at 2 marks.
How to use this paper
- Download the official 2025 paper (linked above) and sit Section I Part A in 35 minutes. Then mark it against the answer key at the start of the marking guidelines.
- Do Part B under timed conditions at about 1.75 minutes per mark. Then check each answer against the criteria in the marking guidelines. Look at the verb (outline, describe, explain, analyse) and ask which band your answer really reaches.
- For the 8-mark items, rewrite one response so that it clearly covers every part of the question, for example both adaptations with both training types, or all three of individuals, communities and governments.
- Choose your two options and write each 12-mark part in 21 minutes. Put your judgement in the first sentence and repeat it at the end of every paragraph.
- Rework the questions on this page without looking at the solutions, then compare. In particular, practise the heart-rate zone and percentage calculations until you can do them in under two minutes.
Use this paper well
- Sit the paper under exam conditions (180 minutes, 100 marks).
- Mark yourself against the official NESA marking notes.
- Compare against the PDHPE (legacy 2012) hub to find the syllabus dot points this paper tested.
