VCE Psychology 2025

Every question from the 2025 VCE Psychology examination. Multiple-choice answers come with a short reason; Section B model answers sit behind a Show worked solution toggle.

How to use this page

• Questions are from the 2025 VCE Psychology examination, copyright Victorian Curriculum and Assessment Authority (VCAA). Each is summarised briefly here; open the official examination PDF for the full wording, data and diagrams.
• Answers are original ExamExplained model answers. Every multiple-choice answer matches the key in the 2025 Psychology external assessment report (Word document), and every Section B answer was checked against the points the report accepted. Both files are listed on the VCAA Psychology examinations page.
• Percentages after multiple-choice answers are the share of students who chose the correct option. In Section B, "From the report" notes summarise what the examiners said students got wrong.
• Psychology answers are marked on the points made, so the model answers below are written as one clear point per mark and tied to the scenario. Other correct points were also accepted; the report lists them.

Structure and timing

The paper is 120 marks in 150 minutes (plus 15 minutes reading time). That is 1.25 minutes per mark.

• Section A (40 marks): 40 multiple-choice questions, mostly in scenario sets. Aim for about 45 minutes.
• Section B (80 marks): 9 questions, ending with a 10-mark extended response (Question 9) marked holistically against four published criteria. Leave at least 15 minutes for it.

Section A: Multiple choice

Q1

Four-year-olds learning to fold paper. Which neurochemical is involved in the learning? Answer: D - glutamate, the main excitatory neurotransmitter, which helps strengthen synaptic connections. (87%)

Q2

Where is the memory for paper-folding motor skills stored? Answer: B - the cerebellum, because it is an implicit (procedural) memory. (65%)

Q3

Role of interneurons when a child pulls their cut finger away. Answer: D - relaying messages between sensory and motor neurons in the spinal cord. (78%)

Q4

Why is the withdrawal so fast? Answer: A - it is a spinal reflex: a survival response that is initiated without the brain. Neurons do not travel; messages travel along them. (57%; 33% chose D.)

Q5

Methodology and limitation of observing children folding paper in their classrooms. Answer: C - fieldwork; extraneous variables in a classroom are hard to control. (76%)

Q6

Three groups ate different amounts of dark chocolate, with mood and gut microbiota measured before and after. The design? Answer: A - mixed: groups are compared with each other (between subjects) and each group is compared before and after (within subjects). (34%; 47% chose D.)

Q7

Why measure gut microbiota before the study? Answer: D - to give a baseline for comparison. (82%)

Q8

Which conclusion do the results support? Answer: A - conclusion 1 only: eating 30 g a day was associated with the largest increase in gut microbiota diversity. The study did not test the gut-brain axis, so conclusion 2 goes beyond the data. (35%; 53% chose C.)

Q9

The data collected were Answer: B - primary and quantitative. (74%)

Q10

A student trips while rushing to class. GAS stage and resistance when they first lose balance? Answer: B - alarm reaction (shock), with resistance below normal. (77%)

Q11

How could mindfulness meditation link to the GAS model? Answer: D - by drawing attention to the physiological stress response during the alarm reaction stage. (59%)

Q12

How might this link improve the GAS model's explanatory power? Answer: C - by recognising the psychological processing in the stress response, which the GAS model leaves out. (62%)

Q13

Calming music is used so that approaching humans calm cows. When should the music play? Answer: C - directly after the cows see a human, so the neutral stimulus (the human) comes just before the unconditioned stimulus (music). (36%; another 36% chose D, which reverses the order.)

Q14

After conditioning, the music and the presence of a human are Answer: C - the unconditioned stimulus and the conditioned stimulus. (58%)

Q15

Brain area most likely involved in learning the reduced stress response. Answer: A - the amygdala, which is involved in conditioned emotional responses. (69%)

Q16

Why measure the cows' pupil dilation? Answer: C - it is part of the fight-or-flight response, activated by the sympathetic nervous system. (83%)

Q17

Students get a verbal warning for chewing gum on school grounds. Antecedent and behaviour when they learn not to chew gum? Answer: C - antecedent: school grounds; behaviour: not chewing gum. (59%)

Q18

An Indigenous Australian practice that could be used to research Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander ways of knowing. Answer: B - yarning circles, a form of fieldwork. (50%)

Q19

Purpose of a literature review on diagnosing sleep-disordered breathing in pregnancy. Answer: B - to give an overview of how it may be diagnosed. A literature review collates existing findings; it does not present new research. (54%; 33% chose D.)

Q20

A strength of five-point sleepiness questionnaire data and a limitation of using the questionnaire. Answer: A - the data are easy to summarise, but self-reports can vary with mood and insight, so repeatability is low. (57%)

Q21

Which statements about laboratory sleep studies and portable monitoring are correct? Answer: B - statements 1 and 2. A single-night study can still be analysed, so statement 3 is wrong. (68%)

Q22

Partial sleep deprivation affected behavioural measures of sleepiness in a driving simulator. Participants would show Answer: C - a higher percentage of eye closure, a behavioural effect. Decision-making and concentration are cognitive effects. (28%; 45% chose D.)

Q23

The simulator data are valid. This means Answer: D - the data are appropriate for assessing the effects of sleep deprivation (they measure what they claim to). (71%)

Q24

A research question comparing full sleep deprivation with blood alcohol concentration (BAC) on mood. Answer: D - emotional regulation at a BAC of 0.10: one night without sleep is comparable to 0.10, and emotional regulation is a mood (affective) measure. (55%)

Q25

Bright light therapy for Advanced Sleep Phase Disorder. Answer: A - in the evening, 30 minutes a day for four weeks, to delay the circadian rhythm. (66%)

Q26

How can artificial lighting help residents' circadian rhythms? Answer: B - when the eyes detect more light, messages to the pineal gland inhibit melatonin release, reducing drowsiness during the day. (66%)

Q27

A correct statement about shift work. Answer: D - alternating day and night shifts keep disrupting the circadian rhythm, so a sleep disorder is more likely than with mostly night shifts. (37%; 42% chose C, which describes delayed sleep phase syndrome.)

Q28

The least effective sleep hygiene advice for night shift workers. Answer: A - "avoid caffeine in the evening": for night workers the evening is the start of their work period, so advice must follow their sleep time, not the clock. (24%; 48% chose B.)

Q29

A true statement about the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN). Answer: B - it uses daylight to reset (entrain) the circadian rhythm about every 24 hours. It sits in the hypothalamus. (43%)

Q30

Why did community consultation improve a social and emotional wellbeing program? Answer: C - it recognised the unique views of members of several communities. (60%)

Q31

Why run the program in several communities? Answer: B - to increase external validity by recognising cultural and regional differences between communities. (59%)

Q32

How does the program reflect cultural determinants of wellbeing? Answer: D - it empowers community members to take ownership through decision-making, supporting self-determination. (61%)

Q33

A strong correlation was found between self-determination and improved wellbeing. Which statement is supported? Answer: B - statement 2 only: there is a relationship. A correlation cannot show that self-determination causes the improvement, nor rule it out. (15%; 64% chose C.)

Q34

Distinguish stress from anxiety. Answer: C - stress arises from internal or external challenges; anxiety arises from apprehension about possible threats. (88%)

Q35

Why use a line graph for social interactions across ten outings? Answer: C - to track the data over time. (67%)

Q36

Explain the dog-walking program's benefits with the biopsychosocial approach. Answer: A - biological: more physical activity; psychological: improved confidence; social: opportunities for interaction. (78%)

Q37

Internal and external factors in mental wellbeing. Answer: D - external factors (the dog) create opportunities for interaction that are influenced by internal factors (emotional functioning). (88%)

Q38

What does the fear rating in a fear hierarchy show? Answer: C - how severe the conditioned fear response is for each scenario. (88%)

Q39

A factor that could contribute to a phobia of magpies. Answer: B - a direct, frightening encounter with an aggressive magpie. (75%)

Q40

Using the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, how is fear reduced at each step of the hierarchy? Answer: D - the scenario is registered in sensory memory, transferred to short-term memory and combined with knowledge retrieved from long-term memory about how to relax. (64%)

Section B

Question 1 (6 marks)

Thermoreceptors (sensory neurons) detect temperature changes, and the body responds consciously and unconsciously.

a.i

Give an example of a conscious and an unconscious response in a hot environment. (2 marks)

a.ii

Outline the role of one subdivision of the central nervous system and one of the peripheral nervous system in coordinating your unconscious response. (2 marks)

b

Contrast neurotransmitters and neuromodulators. (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a.i. [2 marks]

Conscious: moving into the shade (or taking off a jumper). Unconscious: sweating.

a.ii. [2 marks]

CNS: the brain receives the sensory information that the body is hot, interprets it and initiates sweating. PNS: the autonomic nervous system carries the messages from the brain to the sweat glands, activating them without conscious control.

b. [2 marks]

Two matched contrasts: neurotransmitters act across a single synapse on a specific postsynaptic neuron, whereas neuromodulators spread across large areas and affect many neurons at once; neurotransmitters have short-lived, direct excitatory or inhibitory effects, whereas neuromodulators have longer-lasting effects that adjust how responsive neurons are.

From the report. In a.i, a response needs a direction ("heart rate increases", not "heart rate"), and sweating is not a spinal reflex: thermoregulation involves the brain. In a.ii, "SNS" was ambiguous (sympathetic or somatic). In b, each contrast had to compare the same feature for both chemicals.

Question 2 (9 marks)

Researchers are studying how gut microbiota may affect Alzheimer's disease through the gut-brain axis, including possible effects of antibiotics.

a

Identify one role of gut microbiota. (1 mark)

b

Explain why Alzheimer's disease affects retrieval of autobiographical events. (2 marks)

c.i

Explain why a correlational study would be more ethical than a controlled experiment for studying antibiotic use and Alzheimer's progression. (3 marks)

c.ii

Identify the population the sample should come from. (1 mark)

d

Describe how brain imaging could track the progression of Alzheimer's disease. (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [1 mark]

Gut microbiota aid digestion (or help produce neurochemicals such as serotonin and GABA, or support immune function).

b. [2 marks]

Alzheimer's disease causes progressive neuron death and brain atrophy, beginning in the hippocampus and spreading to the neocortex. Because the hippocampus and neocortex are needed to retrieve explicit memories of personal past events, the person struggles to recall autobiographical events.

c.i. [3 marks]

A controlled experiment would mean manipulating antibiotic use: assigning some participants to take antibiotics they may not need (or to stop antibiotics they do need). A correlational study only measures existing antibiotic use and disease progression without changing anything. That avoids giving people unnecessary medication with possible side effects (beneficence), and protects a vulnerable group who may not fully understand the risks (respect).

c.ii. [1 mark]

People with Alzheimer's disease who are taking antibiotics (both variables must be present in the population).

d. [2 marks]

Brain scans (such as MRI or PET) can show brain atrophy, reduced activity in memory regions, or the build-up of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles. Comparing scans taken at several points in time shows whether shrinkage or plaque build-up is increasing, which tracks the progression.

From the report. Part c was answered poorly: c.i averaged 0.5 out of 3, and in c.ii only 7% scored the mark, most answering just "people with Alzheimer's disease". Some wrongly said correlational studies test cause and effect. In d, many forgot to mention tracking change over time.

Question 3 (10 marks)

A student modelled the adult sleep cycle as a loop from NREM1 to NREM2 to NREM3 to REM and back, repeated four or five times a night.

a

Identify two limitations of the model. (2 marks)

b

Describe how data from one physiological measure could support aspects of the model. (4 marks)

c

Suggest two reasons sleep is an altered state of consciousness. (2 marks)

d

List two changes to make the model represent an infant's sleep. (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [2 marks]

Any two, each a flaw in the model itself: it shows equal time in every stage, when NREM3 dominates early cycles and REM lengthens later in the night; it suggests a strict linear order (REM always straight after NREM3), when sleepers usually move back up through NREM2 before REM; it shows no brief awakenings; it does not show how the pattern changes with age.

b. [4 marks]

An EEG detects, amplifies and records the electrical activity of the brain as brain waves. In REM sleep the EEG shows fast, low-amplitude (beta-like) waves similar to being awake; in NREM1 and NREM2, slower waves (theta, with sleep spindles and K-complexes in NREM2); in NREM3, slow, high-amplitude delta waves. Recording through the night shows which stage the sleeper is in, in what order and for how long, so it can confirm that REM and NREM alternate in cycles and count the number of cycles.

c. [2 marks]

Any two: while asleep a person has reduced awareness of their surroundings and responds less to stimuli; they lose track of time; they have less control over their thoughts (dreams); they experience perceptual and cognitive distortions in dreams.

d. [2 marks]

Any two: show a much larger share of REM sleep (about half of sleep); start the cycle with REM (infants often enter REM first); show shorter, more numerous and irregular cycles; add frequent awakenings and several sleep episodes across the day.

From the report. In a, limitations had to be about what the model shows or leaves out, not general sleep facts. In b, naming a device was not enough: explain what it measures and how the readings would show the stages. In c, "you are less aware" alone was too vague.

Question 4 (11 marks)

A Beyond Blue fact sheet (psychoeducation) advises family and friends of someone with a specific phobia to: (1) encourage them to seek help and offer to go with them; (2) not take part in their avoidance; (3) encourage them to challenge unrealistic or anxious thoughts; (4) acknowledge any progress.

a

Describe the social protective factor that supports mental wellbeing. (2 marks)

b

Advice 1 targets a social factor contributing to specific phobia. Name and outline it. (2 marks)

c

Apply the social-cognitive model (attention, reproduction, reinforcement) to explain how a person might learn avoidance by watching family or friends. (3 marks)

d.i

Explain how catastrophic thinking contributes to a specific phobia. (2 marks)

d.ii

State one other cognitive bias that contributes. (1 mark)

e

State the operant conditioning consequence suggested by advice 4. (1 mark)

Show worked solution

a. [2 marks]

Support from family, friends and community. Having trusted people to talk to, who give genuine encouragement and practical help, helps a person cope with challenges and build resilience, protecting their mental wellbeing.

b. [2 marks]

Stigma around seeking treatment. A person may feel embarrassed or ashamed of their phobia and fear being judged, so they avoid seeking professional help, and the phobia continues and worsens.

c. [3 marks]

• Attention: the person closely watches a family member avoid the phobic stimulus and notices the consequence: the family member looks relieved.
• Reproduction: the person is physically and mentally able to copy the avoidance (for example, crossing the road away from a dog).
• Reinforcement: when they avoid the stimulus, their own anxiety drops (negative reinforcement), or they saw the model rewarded by relief (vicarious reinforcement), so avoidance becomes more likely in future.

d.i. [2 marks]

Catastrophic thinking means imagining the worst possible outcome of a future encounter with the phobic stimulus ("the dog will attack me"). This increases the person's anxiety and makes avoidance more likely, which maintains and worsens the phobia.

d.ii. [1 mark]

Memory bias.

e. [1 mark]

Positive reinforcement (praise is added, making progress more likely to continue).

From the report. In a, psychoeducation is not a social protective factor. In b, answers needed stigma plus the shame that stops help-seeking. In c (4% full marks), "positive reinforcement" was often named when relief (negative reinforcement) was described. In d.i, catastrophic thinking maintains or worsens a phobia; it was wrong to say it causes one.

Question 5 (8 marks)

A study compared the cortisol awakening response (the rise in cortisol in the 30 to 45 minutes after waking, measured in saliva) of military veterans who had service animals with a control group. Veterans exposed to chronic stress often have an irregular response.

a

Distinguish acute stress from chronic stress. (1 mark)

b

Explain what it means that cortisol release follows a circadian rhythm. (1 mark)

c

With reference to resilience, suggest how service animals could support veterans' mental wellbeing. (2 marks)

d

Future studies might collect saliva in a laboratory for a week rather than at home. Suggest one strength and one limitation of this for validity. (2 marks)

e

The animals are trained to detect high stress and anxiety. Identify the behaviourist approach used and justify. (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [1 mark]

Acute stress is short-term, while chronic stress lasts a long time (weeks, months or longer).

b. [1 mark]

Cortisol levels rise and fall in a regular pattern that repeats about every 24 hours (peaking soon after waking), controlled by the body's internal clock.

c. [2 marks]

Resilience is the ability to cope with and adapt to change and uncertainty. A service animal gives constant companionship and a calming presence, and encourages social interaction, which helps veterans manage stressful situations and recover from setbacks.

d. [2 marks]

Strength: higher internal validity, because extraneous variables (timing of samples, what participants eat, their activity) can be controlled. Limitation: lower external validity, because a laboratory does not reflect the veterans' everyday stressors (and the unfamiliar setting could itself raise cortisol).

e. [2 marks]

Operant conditioning. The animal voluntarily performs a behaviour (signalling when it detects stress), and the trainer gives a consequence, such as a treat, that reinforces it, so the behaviour becomes more likely.

From the report. In a, acute and chronic are types of stress, not stressors. In c, resilience is the ability to cope with change and uncertainty, not a coping strategy. In d, the strength and limitation had to relate to validity. In e, classical conditioning and observational learning were common wrong answers.

Question 6 (11 marks)

A study of long-distance runners measured sleep quality with the Athlete Sleep Behaviour Questionnaire (ASBQ), where lower scores mean better sleep. Fruit: under 1 serving a day 20.1 ± 4.10; 1 to 2 servings 21.0 ± 4.01; 3 to 4 servings 20.8 ± 4.97. Caffeinated drinks: under 1 cup a day 18.1 ± 2.75; 1 to 1.5 cups 19.2 ± 3.78; more than 1.5 to 2 cups 21.6 ± 3.96.

a

Propose one recommendation about caffeinated drinks to improve runners' sleep. (1 mark)

b

Which fruit serving size gave the most precise ASBQ scores? Justify. (2 marks)

c

Propose how one affective and one cognitive effect of poor sleep would affect running performance. (2 marks)

d

With reference to zeitgebers, explain how meal timing could improve runners' sleep-wake patterns. (3 marks)

e

Predict and describe the effect on ASBQ score of frequently using electronic devices before bed. (3 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [1 mark]

Drink less than one cup of caffeinated drinks a day (this group had the best mean score, 18.1).

b. [2 marks]

1 to 2 servings per day. It has the smallest standard deviation (4.01), so its scores are the most closely clustered, which means the highest precision.

c. [2 marks]

Affective: greater irritability or emotional reactivity, so a runner may feel more anxious or frustrated before and during a race and perform worse. Cognitive: poorer decision-making and logical thinking, so a runner may pace the race badly or make poor tactical choices.

d. [3 marks]

Zeitgebers are external cues that help set the circadian rhythm, and meal timing is one of them. Runners should eat at regular times each day and avoid large meals close to bedtime. Late eating keeps digestion active and can shift the body clock later, delaying melatonin release and sleep onset; consistent, earlier meals keep the circadian rhythm aligned with their planned bedtime, so they fall asleep more easily and sleep better.

e. [3 marks]

The ASBQ score would increase (worse sleep quality). Light from screens reaches the SCN, which signals the pineal gland to suppress melatonin, and the content keeps the brain alert. This delays sleep onset and reduces the amount of restorative sleep, so the runner reports poorer sleep quality.

From the report. In b, answers had to say the standard deviation was the smallest, not just quote it. In c, effects had to be linked to running performance. In d, generic diet advice without zeitgebers or the circadian rhythm scored poorly. In e, some forgot that a higher ASBQ score means worse sleep.

Question 7 (10 marks)

Arlo compared how severely 10 Psychology students (who had spent a week learning Lazarus and Folkman's Transactional Model of Stress and Coping) and 10 non-Psychology students appraised a written scenario about an unhelpful project partner, using 10 questions.

a

Write a possible hypothesis. (3 marks)

b

A participant says doing the project alone, though stressful, would help their development. State their primary appraisal. (1 mark)

c

The consent form did not reveal the true aim. Assess whether this breaches ethical guidelines. (2 marks)

d.i

Outline one benefit of the between-subjects design here. (1 mark)

d.ii

Summarise how a within-subjects design could be used in a new experiment with the same aim. (3 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [3 marks]

It is hypothesised that students who have learnt Lazarus and Folkman's Transactional Model of Stress and Coping will appraise the social-conflict scenario as less severely stressful than students who have not learnt the model.

b. [1 mark]

Challenge.

c. [2 marks]

Withholding the true aim is deception. It is not a breach if it was necessary (telling participants the aim could change how they answer) and participants are debriefed afterwards, told the true aim and offered support. It would be a breach if there was no debriefing.

d.i. [1 mark]

Each participant does only one condition, so learning the model cannot affect their answers in another condition (no order effects), and both groups can be tested at the same time.

d.ii. [3 marks]

Use one group of students who have not learnt the model. First, they appraise a scenario (control condition). Then they are taught the Transactional Model and appraise a different but equivalent scenario (experimental condition). Compare each participant's severity scores before and after learning the model. The control condition must come first, because learning cannot be undone.

From the report. Part d.i was answered poorly (19%): a feature of the design was not enough; it had to be a benefit for this experiment. In d.ii, answers needed the same participants in both conditions, the control first, and how it would work in this context.

Question 8 (5 marks)

Images show a child's pencil grip developing over time. Explain how long-term potentiation (LTP) and long-term depression (LTD) work together to modify the connections between neurons as the child learns to hold a pencil. (5 marks)

Show worked solution

[5 marks].

• Each time the child practises the new, more mature grip, the neurons in that pathway fire together repeatedly. This long-term potentiation strengthens the synaptic connections, and sprouting forms new connections, so the new grip becomes easier and more automatic.
• The old, clumsy grip is used less and less, so its pathway receives only low-level stimulation. This long-term depression weakens those connections, and unused synapses are pruned.
• Working together, LTD weakening the pathway for the old grip while LTP strengthens the pathway for the new grip makes the neural network more efficient, so the child reliably uses the better grip.

From the report. Answers that did not refer to the pencil grip were capped at 4 marks. Common errors were saying the new grip "replaces" the old one without explaining the neural process, and saying LTD involves no firing at all (it involves low-level firing).

Question 9 (10 marks)

A diagram shows the method of loci in four steps: making a memory palace, creating a path, encoding the list and recalling the list. Compare the method of loci with the mnemonics of oral cultures, such as Aboriginal peoples' use of songlines, and evaluate how well someone with aphantasia could use each. Refer to the diagram. (10 marks)

Show worked solution

[10 marks]. This is marked holistically against four criteria: using terminology in context, comparing concepts, using the diagram, and building evidence-based evaluations. A strong response could run as follows.

• Terms in context. Mnemonics are techniques that improve the encoding, storage and retrieval of information. Aphantasia is difficulty or inability to form voluntary visual images in the mind's eye.
• Using the diagram. The method of loci starts by making a memory palace (a familiar building), then creating a path through its rooms. In encoding the list, each item is pictured vividly at a location along the path; in recalling the list, the person mentally walks the path, and each location acts as a retrieval cue for its item, in order.
• Similarity. Both methods link information to places along a route, so moving through the locations cues sequential retrieval. Both also make information more meaningful through vivid associations or story.
• Differences. The method of loci depends mainly on visual mental imagery and is usually a private technique. Songlines are multimodal: knowledge is encoded in song, rhythm, dance and story, tied to real places on Country, and shared across a community and generations. That cultural and emotional meaning strengthens encoding and retrieval.
• Evaluation: method of loci. A person with aphantasia would likely struggle, because each step (building the palace, placing items along the path, "seeing" them at recall) relies on generating visual images, which they cannot do. They might partly adapt by using spatial or verbal knowledge of a familiar route.
• Evaluation: songlines. They would likely be more successful, because songlines do not rely on imagery alone: melody, rhythm, movement, narrative and real landmarks provide auditory, motor and semantic retrieval cues.
• Conclusion. Both mnemonics use place-based cues, but songlines' multimodal, culturally embedded encoding makes them more accessible to people with aphantasia than the image-dependent method of loci.

From the report. High scores came from paired comparisons (at least one detailed similarity and one detailed difference), specific references to the diagram's steps rather than "as the diagram shows", and evaluations with "because" reasoning. Common errors were calling a mnemonic a "memory trick", defining aphantasia as an inability to imagine at all, and saying songlines were also unsuitable without considering that they are multimodal.

Advice from the 2025 report

• Link every answer to the scenario. Generic, pre-learned answers regularly lost marks (Questions 3a, 6c and 8).
• Know the command terms. "Contrast" needs matched differences; "summarise" needs the key steps; "suggest" needs an actual suggestion.
• Know the key science skills well. Populations and samples (2c.ii, 7% correct), validity (5d) and the benefits of designs (7d.i, 19% correct) were among the weakest answers.
• Be precise with terms. Name types of reinforcement correctly, give responses with a direction ("heart rate increases"), and define resilience and aphantasia accurately.
• Plan the extended response. Compare with paired similarities and differences, quote the stimulus and justify each evaluation.