VCE Psychology 2024

Every question from the 2024 VCE Psychology examination. Multiple-choice answers come with a short reason; Section B model answers sit behind a Show worked solution toggle.

How to use this page

• Questions are from the 2024 VCE Psychology examination, copyright Victorian Curriculum and Assessment Authority (VCAA). Each is summarised briefly here; open the official examination PDF for the full wording, data and diagrams.
• Answers are original ExamExplained model answers. Every multiple-choice answer matches the key in the 2024 Psychology external assessment report (Word document), and every Section B answer was checked against the points the report accepted. Both files are listed on the VCAA Psychology examinations page.
• Percentages after multiple-choice answers are the share of students who chose the correct option. In Section B, "From the report" notes summarise what the examiners said students got wrong.
• Psychology answers are marked on the points made, so the model answers below are written as one clear point per mark and tied to the scenario. Other correct points were also accepted; the report lists them.

Structure and timing

The paper is 120 marks in 150 minutes (plus 15 minutes reading time). That is 1.25 minutes per mark.

• Section A (40 marks): 40 multiple-choice questions, mostly in scenario sets. Aim for about 45 minutes.
• Section B (80 marks): 9 questions, ending with a 10-mark extended response (Question 9) marked holistically against four published criteria.

Section A: Multiple choice

Q1

A neurochemical spreads through the fluid between many neurons and, at high levels, makes them less excitable. It is most likely Answer: C - a neuromodulator, which acts across a wide area rather than one synapse. (61%)

Q2

Which statement best describes neural transmission? Answer: B - the nervous system works through both cellular components (neurons) and chemical ones (neurotransmitters, neuromodulators). (27%; 38% chose C, but synaptic vesicles are in the presynaptic axon terminals.)

Q3

Participants who lied in a mock theft showed more blood flow to the face. This is most likely due to the Answer: B - autonomic nervous system: blood flow changes are an unconscious response to a threat. (87%)

Q4

Analysing only a few facial areas improved deception prediction from 67.1% to 87.1%. This indicates Answer: A - the brain directs blood to specific areas in response to a stressor. (71%)

Q5

Overlap between the GAS model and the fight-flight-freeze response. Answer: D - in the counter-shock part of the alarm reaction, resistance rises above normal, energising the person to fight or flee. (69%)

Q6

How does the exhaustion stage of GAS explain the onset of burnout? Answer: A - greater susceptibility to illness makes burnout more likely. (It is cortisol, not adrenaline, that is depleted.) (65%)

Q7

Why did the literature review find common trends in burnout? Answer: D - the biological stress response is non-specific: the same whatever the stressor or person. (50%)

Q8

A suitable way to reduce stigma around seeking treatment. Answer: B - psychoeducation sessions for family. (88%)

Q9

An ethical guideline and data type for a happiness questionnaire. Answer: B - informed consent (participants understand the true nature of the questionnaire), and primary data, collected by the researchers from participants. (75%)

Q10

Students were randomly split into 12 hours of cognitive behavioural coaching or no intervention, with stress measured straight after and six months later. Which conclusions can be drawn? Answer: A - conclusions 1 and 2: coaching beats no intervention, in the short and longer term. Goal type and session length were not varied. (54%)

Q11

Cognitive behavioural coaching could have involved Answer: C - training participants to identify and replace unhelpful actions that block their goals. (84%)

Q12

In Lazarus and Folkman's terms, the coaching helped because it Answer: A - improves the ability to perceive the significance of an event (primary appraisal). (71%)

Q13

Which statements about stress are correct? Answer: C - 2 and 3: a lack of coping flexibility could prolong cortisol release, and both acute and chronic stress involve a physiological response. Context-specific effectiveness is about matching strategy to stressor, not approach versus avoidance. (55%; 34% chose D.)

Q14

The most effective example of positive reinforcement in class. Answer: D - giving on-task students a sticker during the lesson (immediate and added). (95%)

Q15

Why are after-school detentions ineffective for students who lose focus in class? Answer: C - a consequence weakens the antecedent-behaviour link only if it follows the behaviour immediately; a detention hours later does not. (55%; 27% chose D.)

Q16

Directly linking more positive interactions between students to better wellbeing. Answer: C - a peer mentoring system providing genuine, energising support. (81%)

Q17

Why should shift workers get sleep hygiene information? Answer: D - working at night exposes them to zeitgebers (such as darkness) that promote sleepiness when they need to be alert. (19%; 62% chose A, but sleep hygiene influences sleep rather than controlling it.)

Q18

A likely guideline for people who cannot sleep. Answer: D - get out of bed and do something relaxing in dim light. (76%)

Q19

Using the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, an "event memory" in dogs would involve Answer: B - visual information being attended to and encoded. (59%)

Q20

A dog escaped the same way to a neighbour's cat food years later. Why? Answer: C - consolidation of an episodic autobiographical memory from when it was younger. (81%)

Q21

The owner's memory of the dog's behaviour could be explained by the Answer: B - hippocampus encoding a semantic autobiographical memory. (47%; 35% chose A.)

Q22

A second study used an improved questionnaire and 256 rather than 106 owners. Its purpose? Answer: A - to test the reproducibility of Study 1 (changed conditions) and improve validity (a larger, more representative sample). (55%)

Q23

How was the "healthy food promotion model" created? Answer: D - from a literature review of past research, which could help design effective advertising. (42%; 35% chose B, but a single case study cannot "prove" a model.)

Q24

Apply operant and classical conditioning to promoting healthy food to children. Answer: A - operant: eating healthy food should be followed by a reward; classical: the healthy food should at first produce no response (a neutral stimulus). (85%)

Q25

Mothers of infants with sleep problems (A), mothers of good sleepers (B) and women without children (C) did a driving simulation. A likely result? Answer: A - Group A showed more lane deviation and higher maximum speed. (51%; 35% chose D.)

Q26

After 20 hours awake, how would a mother's cognitive functioning compare with someone at a legal blood alcohol level? Answer: B - she would be less able to focus attention: 17 hours awake is roughly equivalent to 0.05, so 20 hours is worse. (72%)

Q27

A dot plot of time in each sleep stage for "sleep through" (A) and "snoozing" (B) conditions. Which statement is correct? Answer: D - NREM3 time was more spread out in condition A, so its standard deviation was higher. (62%)

Q28

The impact of snoozing on the last 30 minutes of sleep. Answer: C - a larger proportion of time in light (NREM2) sleep: median 14 of 23 minutes, against 12 of 29 minutes without snoozing. (54%)

Q29

Roles of the cognitive tests and self-reports, and of the EEG, in the snoozing study. Answer: A - tests and self-reports checked that participants had returned to normal waking consciousness; the EEG showed sleep patterns from brain-wave frequency. (87%)

Q30

To understand snoozing's effect on daytime functioning more fully, the researchers should have Answer: B - tested behavioural functioning too (cognitive and affective effects were already measured). (69%)

Q31

Room temperature is a zeitgeber because it Answer: C - is an external cue that can regulate the circadian rhythm. (92%)

Q32

Sleepiness fell by 1.8 points after a night at 25 °C and 1.1 at 29 °C. A 20 °C condition would likely show Answer: C - a greater average reduction, meaning a larger decrease in sleepiness (the trend favours cooler rooms). (31%; 51% chose B.)

Q33

An aspect of Mowrer's two-factor theory of phobias. Answer: C - the constant urge to remove the phobic stimulus (avoidance) perpetuates the anxiety. (44%)

Q34

Applying behaviourist approaches to specific phobia. Answer: D - the conditioned stimulus acts as an antecedent that triggers avoidance. (59%)

Q35

Why is systematic desensitisation effective? Answer: D - relaxation provides an alternative conditioned response (calm instead of fear) to the phobic stimulus. (45%)

Q36

Survey items about recovering from difficult times assess Answer: B - resilience. (88%)

Q37

Why is the university wellbeing study correlational? Answer: C - it identifies factors related to mental wellbeing without manipulating any variables. (61%)

Q38

Why can self-report rating scales be used for mental wellbeing? Answer: D - wellbeing is a construct on a continuum with no fixed points. (74%)

Q39

When would the trends provide evidence for a biopsychosocial approach? All four options were accepted after psychometric review, so every answer scored the mark. (The report gives no preferred answer.)

Q40

The biological response to a stimulus with and without a phobia. Answer: A - with a phobia, amygdala activity is poorly regulated because of low GABA; without one, normal GABA release keeps amygdala activity regulated. (72%)

Section B

Question 1 (10 marks)

A father teaches his young son to brush his teeth, with a rhyming TEETH acronym poster by the mirror (twice a day; every tooth clean; ensure you brush; to keep your smile healthy; happy teeth).

a

Discuss how the basal ganglia and neocortex are involved in learning to brush teeth, referring to each region's role and how they interact. (3 marks)

b

Use the Atkinson-Shiffrin model to explain why the poster will help. (2 marks)

c

The father remembers enjoying brushing his teeth as a child and imagines teaching his son. Describe the roles of episodic and semantic memory in this possible imagined future. (3 marks)

d

Explain the role of long-term potentiation in the retention stage of observational learning in this scenario. (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [3 marks]

The basal ganglia encode and consolidate the implicit, procedural memory of the brushing movements and help turn them into a habit. The neocortex stores the long-term memory once consolidated, and its motor areas plan and coordinate the movements (it also holds explicit knowledge, such as how much toothpaste to use). The two regions are linked by neural pathways: the basal ganglia send the consolidated procedural memory to the neocortex, and loops between them refine the sequence of movements with practice until it runs automatically.

b. [2 marks]

Any two links to the model: seeing the poster every day gives constant input to sensory memory, so the information is attended to; the acronym chunks five instructions into one word, fitting within the limited capacity of short-term memory; the rhyme and meaning give elaborative rehearsal, helping encoding into long-term memory; each letter of TEETH acts as a retrieval cue.

c. [3 marks]

Episodic memory lets the father recall his own specific experiences of learning to brush and enjoying it. Semantic memory supplies general knowledge, such as how to brush properly and what his son is like. He actively combines these episodic details and semantic facts to construct a new scenario that has not happened yet: teaching his son to brush.

d. [2 marks]

Retention means storing a mental representation of the observed behaviour. Each time the boy watches his father brush, the same neurons fire together repeatedly, and long-term potentiation strengthens those synaptic connections, so the mental representation of brushing is stored as a lasting long-term memory he can later reproduce.

From the report. In b, describing the model alone did not score; each point had to link a feature of the poster to a memory store. In d (19% full marks), "mental image" is not a substitute for "mental representation", and LTP requires repeated stimulation.

Question 2 (7 marks)

Researchers study the vagus nerve in the gut-brain axis using several methods, including case studies.

a. Outline two roles of the vagus nerve in the gut-brain axis and describe how case studies could help understand its role. (4 marks)

b. Using the gut-brain axis, explain why adequate nutrition is a biological protective factor for mental wellbeing. (3 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [4 marks]. Roles: it carries sensory messages from the gut to the brain (most of its fibres), and motor messages from the brain to the gut, providing two-way communication between the enteric and central nervous systems. Case studies: a case study is an in-depth investigation of one person or small group. Studying in detail someone whose vagus nerve has been damaged or surgically cut (or who receives vagus nerve stimulation) could show how their gut function, mood or stress responses change, revealing the nerve's role in the gut-brain axis.

b. [3 marks]. Adequate nutrition supplies the nutrients (such as fibre) that support a diverse, balanced gut microbiota. These microbiota help produce chemicals that influence brain function, including neurotransmitters such as serotonin and GABA, and signals travel to the brain along the gut-brain axis. This supports healthy brain function and more stable mood, helping maintain mental wellbeing.

From the report. In a (6% full marks), common errors were describing the gut-brain axis in general rather than the vagus nerve, and giving a case study about the gut-brain axis generally rather than the vagus nerve specifically.

Question 3 (5 marks)

Compare and contrast bright light therapy for Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome (DSPS) and Advanced Sleep Phase Disorder (ASPD), and explain the biological mechanism that makes it work for both. (5 marks)

Show worked solution

[5 marks].

• Similarity: for both disorders, bright light therapy is used to reset the circadian rhythm, bringing the sleep-wake cycle back into line with normal times, using timed exposure to intense light for a similar length of time.
• Difference: for DSPS (sleep onset too late) the light is given in the morning, to shift the rhythm earlier; for ASPD (sleep onset too early) it is given in the late afternoon or evening, to shift the rhythm later.
• Mechanism: the bright light is detected by the eyes and signalled to the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus. The SCN signals the pineal gland to suppress melatonin release while the light is present, which promotes alertness and resets when melatonin will be released and sleepiness felt. Morning light brings melatonin release earlier the next evening (DSPS); evening light pushes it later (ASPD).

From the report. This was generally answered well. Weaker answers described the disorders rather than the use of the therapy, or defined bright light therapy without explaining the mechanism.

Question 4 (10 marks)

Thirty people with an ankle sprain in the last three days had a spinal reflex triggered by an electrode on the lower leg, with responses recorded by EMG in both ankles. A larger H-index (height in cm divided by reflex response time in seconds) means a faster reflex. Average H-index: injured ankle 78, uninjured ankle 87.

a

Name the main excitatory neurotransmitter. (1 mark)

b

Outline one role each of the somatic nervous system and the spinal cord in this reflex. (2 marks)

c

Describe and interpret the results. (2 marks)

d

Demonstrate how random sampling could achieve a representative sample. (3 marks)

e

In terms of measurement error, explain the benefit of calculating the H-index. (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [1 mark]

Glutamate.

b. [2 marks]

Somatic nervous system: its sensory neurons carry the message from the stimulated point on the lower leg to the spinal cord (and its motor neurons carry the response back to the soleus muscle). Spinal cord: interneurons relay the message from sensory to motor neurons, initiating the muscle response without involving the brain.

c. [2 marks]

The average H-index was lower for injured ankles (78) than uninjured ankles (87). Since a lower H-index means a slower reflex, an ankle sprain slows spinal reflex response time.

d. [3 marks]

The population is people who have had an ankle sprain in the last three days. Obtain a list of everyone in that population (for example, from clinics in the area) and use a method such as a random number generator so that every member of the population has an equal chance of selection. With a large enough sample, random selection makes it likely that the sample reflects the population's characteristics (age, sex, fitness), so it is representative.

e. [2 marks]

Response time depends partly on height (a taller person's signal travels further), which would otherwise be a systematic error that skews the comparison. Dividing height by response time corrects for differences in participants' heights, improving the accuracy (and validity) of the results.

From the report. In b (6% full marks), roles had to be linked to this experiment, and neurons do not "move". In c, some wrongly said the injury decreases response time. In d (1% full marks), common errors were including uninjured people in the population and saying members of the sample (not population) need an equal chance. Part e required naming systematic error.

Question 5 (10 marks)

In a within-subjects study, 157 students did 30 minutes of mindfulness meditation daily for a week and completed a daily questionnaire on stressors, stress appraisals, coping strategies, coping flexibility and mood. Less frequent stress appraisals explained 19% of the fall in negative mood, and mindful coping strategies 13% of the mood changes; coping flexibility explained none.

a

Distinguish internal and external stressors. (1 mark)

b.i

Suggest a question to measure primary appraisal. (1 mark)

b.ii

Suggest a question to measure secondary appraisal. (1 mark)

c

Suggest why coping flexibility does not explain the change in mood. (3 marks)

d

Propose how the researchers could apply debriefing. (2 marks)

e

Explain how sleep deprivation could affect the results, and recommend one improvement. (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [1 mark]

An internal stressor comes from within the person (such as worrying thoughts or illness), while an external stressor comes from the environment (such as an exam or a conflict).

b.i. [1 mark]

"How significant was this event to you: was it irrelevant, benign-positive or stressful (harm/loss, threat or challenge)?"

b.ii. [1 mark]

"Did you feel you had the resources to cope with this stressor?"

c. [3 marks]

Coping flexibility is the ability to recognise when a coping strategy is not working and switch to a different one. Mindfulness meditation involves non-judgemental acceptance of thoughts and feelings in the present moment, rather than changing strategy. And in this study every participant used just one strategy, mindfulness, so there was no opportunity to change strategies. Coping flexibility therefore could not account for the change in mood.

d. [2 marks]

At the end of the study, explain its aims, results and conclusions to participants, answer their questions and correct any misunderstandings, and provide support services (such as counselling contacts) in case the study caused distress.

e. [2 marks]

Sleep deprivation causes low or unstable mood (affective effects). Since mood is the dependent variable, sleep deprivation would act as an extraneous variable, changing mood for reasons unrelated to mindfulness. Improvement: add a question on hours of sleep each night and exclude or account for the data of sleep-deprived participants.

From the report. Part c was difficult (1% full marks). In d, some confused debriefing with informed consent: debriefing comes at the end. In e, many gave an improvement but did not clearly link sleep deprivation to mood, the measured variable.

Question 6 (10 marks)

Pip tested classical conditioning using a torch light (which makes people blink) and an electronic bell, repeated until learning occurred. Seven participants each did one condition: A to C, light then bell with delays of 0.50, 1.00 and 2.00 s; D, both together; E to G, bell then light with delays of 0.50, 1.00 and 2.00 s.

a

List the two independent variables. (2 marks)

b

State the neutral stimulus and unconditioned response. (2 marks)

c

What would Pip look for to show learning had occurred? (1 mark)

d

Predict which condition gives the fastest learning, and justify. (3 marks)

e

Outline how a further investigation could verify reproducibility. (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [2 marks]

The order of presentation of the two stimuli, and the time delay between them.

b. [2 marks]

Neutral stimulus: the sound of the electronic bell. Unconditioned response: blinking in response to the torch light.

c. [1 mark]

The participant blinks when the bell sounds on its own, before (or without) the torch light.

d. [3 marks]

Condition E. In classical conditioning the neutral stimulus must come just before the unconditioned stimulus, so the bell must precede the light (E, F, G). The shortest delay (0.50 s) makes the link between the two stimuli easiest to form, so condition E should need the fewest trials.

e. [2 marks]

Repeat the experiment under changed conditions, for example with a different experimenter, different participants, a video recording of blinks or a different bell tone, and then compare the results with Pip's. If the pattern (which condition learns fastest) is similar, the results are reproducible.

From the report. In a, listing the two stimuli (torch and bell) was the most common error. In b, the neutral stimulus is the bell's sound, and the unconditioned response is the blink to the light, not to the bell. Part c was answered poorly (30%): naming "CS" and "CR" was not enough.

Question 7 (11 marks)

Extract 1: older adults' sleep often worsens (shifting sleep times, night waking, daytime naps); about 25% nap, their longest sleep is about six hours with more light sleep and less deep sleep, and many get only about an hour of daylight a day. Extract 2: newborns sleep 16 to 18 hours a day in naps of one to four hours, rarely through the night; caregivers may build a more regular schedule from about four months by regulating feeding, night-time sleep and naps. A table shows the percentage of infants able to sleep 5+ hours in a row (62% at 6 months, 72% at 12 months) and 8+ hours (43% and 58%).

a

Using either extract, identify and give a reason for two differences in the sleep of newborns and older adults. (4 marks)

b.i

Critically evaluate: "There are substantial changes to the typical pattern of sleep across all stages of adulthood." (2 marks)

b.ii

Critically evaluate: "Newborns rely more on internal factors than external factors to control their sleep-wake cycles." (2 marks)

c

Graph sleep episode duration against the difference in percentages between 6 and 12 months. (3 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [4 marks].

• Difference 1: newborns sleep 16 to 18 hours a day; older adults' longest episode is about six hours. Reason: newborns need much more sleep for rapid growth and brain development.
• Difference 2: newborns sleep in many short naps day and night; most older adults sleep in one main night episode (only about 25% nap). Reason: newborns have not yet developed a regular circadian sleep-wake cycle, while adults have an established rhythm tied to day and night.

b.i. [2 marks]

Partly supported. Extract 1 says many older adults get less sleep, of worse quality, with more light and less deep sleep. But it also says "some older adults may have no significant disruptions", and it only describes older adults, not all stages of adulthood, so "substantial changes across all stages" goes too far.

b.ii. [2 marks]

Partly supported. Newborns sleep in naps spread through the whole day regardless of light and dark, which suggests internal needs drive their sleep. However, Extract 2 says caregivers can build a regular schedule by regulating feeding times and night-time sleep, which are external factors (zeitgebers), so external factors also matter, increasingly so from about four months.

c. [3 marks]

Differences: 5+ hours, $72 - 62 = 10$%; 8+ hours, $58 - 43 = 15$%. Draw a bar graph (the categories are not continuous), with two separate, non-touching bars, a labelled x-axis (consecutive sleep episode duration: 5+ hours, 8+ hours) and a labelled, scaled y-axis (difference in percentage between 6 and 12 months).

From the report. Part c was answered poorly (7% full marks): common errors were plotting four bars, putting 6 and 12 months on the x-axis, and drawing a line graph for categorical data. In b, evaluations had to use information from the extracts and make clear whether the statement was supported.

Question 8 (7 marks)

The Watarrka Foundation describes kinship as a system that sets a person's responsibilities to other people, the land and natural resources, and how people relate to one another and their surroundings, aiming for a cohesive and harmonious community.

a

Referring to the statement, describe the role of kinship in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander ways of knowing. (2 marks)

b

Identify why sharing songlines is a cultural determinant for Aboriginal peoples, and outline how it protects social and emotional wellbeing (SEWB). (3 marks)

c

Describe how kinship and family support SEWB. (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [2 marks]

Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander ways of knowing are holistic and relational: knowledge is held within relationships between people, Country and generations. Kinship sets who holds and who passes on particular knowledge, as part of each person's "responsibilities towards other people", so sharing knowledge through kinship keeps the community cohesive and harmonious.

b. [3 marks]

Sharing songlines is part of cultural continuity: songlines carry cultural knowledge, law and stories along routes on Country, passed from generation to generation. Keeping this knowledge alive gives people a strong sense of identity and belonging and connection to Culture, Country and ancestors, which protects their social and emotional wellbeing.

c. [2 marks]

Connection to family and kinship is one of the domains of SEWB. Kinship gives a strong sense of belonging and caring relationships, with people to turn to for support, guidance and the sharing of culture (for example, time with Elders), which strengthens a person's social and emotional wellbeing.

From the report. Part a was difficult (6% full marks): answers had to link kinship to ways of knowing, not just describe kinship or repeat the statement. In b, songlines had to be linked to cultural continuity.

Question 9 (10 marks)

People with social anxiety show increased excitatory activity in the amygdala, which cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) can reduce. A model shows: a long-term decrease in amygdala neural activity leads to a decrease in amygdala size, which leads to (and explains) a decrease in anxiety symptoms. Using the model and synaptic plasticity, explain and evaluate the potential use of CBT for people with a specific phobia. (10 marks)

Show worked solution

[10 marks]. This is marked holistically against four criteria: terminology, connecting concepts, explaining with the model, and evaluation. A strong response could cover the following.

• Terms. A specific phobia is an anxiety disorder with an intense, irrational and persistent fear of a particular object or situation. Low GABA (the main inhibitory neurotransmitter) leaves excitatory activity in the amygdala under-regulated, contributing to the fear response. CBT helps a person identify and replace dysfunctional thoughts (such as catastrophic thinking and memory bias) and maladaptive behaviours (such as avoidance) with more realistic, adaptive ones. Synaptic plasticity is the ability of synapses to change with experience, through long-term potentiation (LTP) and long-term depression (LTD).
• Explaining CBT with the model. As a person repeatedly challenges catastrophic thoughts and stops avoiding the phobic stimulus, the pathways linking the stimulus to fear are activated less, or only weakly. Through LTD, those synaptic connections weaken, giving the long-term decrease in amygdala activity in the model. Unused connections are pruned, which could explain the decrease in amygdala size. With less amygdala reactivity, the fear response and symptoms of anxiety decrease. At the same time, practising new, realistic thoughts and approach behaviours strengthens those pathways through LTP.
• Breaking the avoidance cycle. Avoidance is negatively reinforced because it removes fear. CBT replaces avoidance, so the person learns the stimulus is not dangerous, and the old fear pathway is no longer strengthened.
• Evaluation, strengths. CBT targets the cognitive biases and avoidance behaviours that maintain a specific phobia, and the model gives a plausible biological mechanism for lasting change, so it may treat causes rather than just symptoms.
• Evaluation, limitations. The model was developed for social anxiety, so its application to specific phobia still needs testing. CBT mainly targets psychological factors, not biological (GABA) or social ones. It can be confronting and needs the person's active commitment, so some will not persist, and changing neural pathways takes time.
• Conclusion. CBT is likely to be a useful treatment for specific phobia, with the model offering a synaptic-plasticity explanation for its effect, but it should be tested directly in people with specific phobias and may work best combined with other approaches.

From the report. High-scoring answers addressed every part of the question, often using subheadings, and linked LTD and pruning to each step of the model. Some strong answers without an evaluation still scored 6 to 7, so always attempt every part, even if time is short.

Advice from the 2024 report

• Answer the question asked. A definition of the key term is rarely enough; apply it to the scenario.
• Know the command terms, especially "evaluate" (judge strengths and limitations) and "explain" (give reasons how or why).
• Practise the key science skills: identifying independent variables (6a), sampling from the correct population (4d) and the difference between systematic and random errors (4e).
• Be precise with learning terms, such as the retention stage and long-term potentiation (1d).
• Choose the right graph. Categorical data needs a bar graph with separate bars (7c, 7% full marks).