VCE Psychology 2023
Worked solutions to the 2023 VCE Psychology exam, the first on the 2023 to 2027 study design: all 40 multiple-choice answers with reasons, model answers to every Section B question and a plan for the 10-mark extended response.
- Marks
- 120
- Time
- 150 min
- Authority
- VCAA
- Updated
Every question from the 2023 VCE Psychology examination, the first exam on the 2023 to 2027 study design. Multiple-choice answers come with a short reason; Section B model answers sit behind a Show worked solution toggle.
How to use this page
- Questions are from the 2023 VCE Psychology examination, copyright Victorian Curriculum and Assessment Authority (VCAA). Each is summarised briefly here; open the official examination PDF for the full wording, data and diagrams.
- Answers are original ExamExplained model answers. Every multiple-choice answer matches the key in the 2023 Psychology external assessment report (Word document), and every Section B answer was checked against the points the report accepted. Both files are listed on the VCAA Psychology examinations page.
- Percentages after multiple-choice answers are the share of students who chose the correct option. In Section B, "From the report" notes summarise what the examiners said students got wrong.
- Psychology answers are marked on the points made, so the model answers below are written as one clear point per mark and tied to the scenario. Other correct points were also accepted; the report lists them.
Structure and timing
The paper is 120 marks in 150 minutes (plus 15 minutes reading time). That is 1.25 minutes per mark.
- Section A (40 marks): 40 multiple-choice questions, mostly in scenario sets. Aim for about 45 minutes.
- Section B (80 marks): 9 questions, ending with a 10-mark extended response (Question 9) marked holistically against four published criteria, used for the first time in 2023.
Section A: Multiple choice
- Q1
- Which parts of the nervous system dominate a conscious response, an unconscious response and a spinal reflex? Answer: C - brain; spinal cord and brain; spinal cord. Unconscious autonomic responses such as heart rate involve the brain stem as well as the spinal cord. (40%; 55% chose B.)
- Q2
- Actions and functions of dopamine and glutamate. Answer: C - dopamine can be inhibitory and excitatory and increases feelings of pleasure; glutamate is excitatory and increases learning. (89%)
- Q3
- According to Selye's GAS, a person most likely enters exhaustion when they Answer: B - have been under chronic stress and then meet an acute stressor. Options A and C use Lazarus and Folkman's appraisal language. (38%; 34% chose C.)
- Q4
- Long-term potentiation and long-term depression. Answer: C - LTP strengthens synapses (increased glutamate transmission); LTD weakens them, with pruning of redundant pathways. (87%)
- Q5
- Alex freezes as a car approaches, then shakes, breathes fast and wants to yell at the driver. Answer: D - parasympathetic-dominant freeze as the car approaches; sympathetic-dominant fight afterwards (anger at the driver). (71%)
- Q6
- Peta's primary and secondary appraisal after an unsuccessful interview. Answer: B - primary: it could harm her future job prospects; secondary: she has the resources to cope (she asks for feedback). (84%)
- Q7
- Peta imagines her next interview. This relies on Answer: B - semantic autobiographical memory of the answers she gave last time. She cannot have an episodic memory of a room she has not yet seen. (39%; 29% chose C.)
- Q8
- A table of self-management strategies (thinking positively 25.8%, family and friends 21.0%, mindfulness 20.6%, diet 17.3%, supplements 12.6%, cutting alcohol or drugs 2.7%). Answer: C - psychological strategies (thinking positively, mindfulness: 46.4%) were used more than biological ones (diet, supplements, cutting substances: 32.6%). (78%)
- Q9
- How best to measure the effect of public health campaigns on strategy use over time? Answer: A - calculate the percentage change in people using each strategy 12 months later. (51%; 30% chose D.)
- Q10
- Changing strategy when wellbeing does not improve demonstrates Answer: C - coping flexibility. (94%)
- Q11
- A unique aspect of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander ways of learning. Answer: C - learning is interwoven and relational to kinship through Country. (77%)
- Q12
- In the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, the retention stage of observational learning is most effective when Answer: D - the mental representation of the skill is encoded from short-term to long-term memory, so it can be performed in the next lesson. (72%)
- Q13
- The two most important observational learning processes in the first lesson. Answer: A - attention and retention. (81%)
- Q14
- As students master the motor skill, the memory involves the Answer: B - basal ganglia and cerebellum, as it is an implicit memory. (64%)
- Q15
- Likely result comparing people with aphantasia and controls. Answer: C - aphantasic participants report less vivid mental imagery. (78%)
- Q16
- Aphantasia research suggests that Answer: C - retrieval of autobiographical memories depends on the vividness of mental imagery. (52%)
- Q17
- A similarity between early Alzheimer's disease and aphantasia. Answer: D - impairment in constructing possible imagined futures. (59%)
- Q18
- To test repeatability, rerun the study using Answer: A - the same participants (same conditions). New participants would test reproducibility. (29%; 60% chose C.)
- Q19
- An advantage and a limitation of acronyms. Answer: A - retrieval is aided by cues, but acronyms mainly help recall of semantic information. (64%)
- Q20
- What can video monitoring and sleep diaries show? Answer: B - video can confirm leg movements seen on an EMG; a diary records the number of awakenings remembered. (89%)
- Q21
- The most accurate statement about the sleep-wake cycle. Answer: B - internal factors (the SCN's body clock) have a stronger influence than external ones. Meal timing is a zeitgeber, so A is wrong; temperature and light affect circadian, not ultradian, rhythms. (38%)
- Q22
- A partial sleep deprivation symptom of short daytime naps in DSPS, and its cause. Answer: B - a shorter attention span, because short naps rarely reach REM sleep. (60%; 30% chose C.)
- Q23
- A feature shared by DSPS and ASPD. Answer: D - neither causes sleep deprivation if the person can sleep when their body clock dictates. (57%)
- Q24
- Graphs of NREM and REM cycle length through the night for two- and six-year-olds, both sleeping about 10 hours. A valid conclusion? Answer: C - with age, the ultradian (NREM-REM) cycle gets longer, so there are fewer cycles per sleep episode. (36%; 46% chose A.)
- Q25
- A limitation of Jessica's research. Answer: D - the sample should include more diverse children, not just healthy ones. The age difference was the independent variable, not a limitation. (35%; 43% chose C.)
- Q26
- Compared with two- and six-year-olds, adolescents on school nights would likely show Answer: C - a greater proportion of the sleep episode in NREM sleep. Their total sleep is shorter, so not a greater amount. (62%)
- Q27
- Sleep is a psychological construct, so it matters that Answer: D - valid, reproducible sleep studies need both subjective and objective measures. (53%; 34% chose B.)
- Q28
- A control group for a study of theophylline (a stimulant) on rats' circadian rhythm. Answer: A - rats given 0.5 mg/kg of salt solution instead. (59%)
- Q29
- A likely EEG observation in rats given theophylline. Answer: D - less total time with high-amplitude, low-frequency (deep sleep) waves, because theophylline stimulates the CNS. (35%)
- Q30
- An improvement that directly improves validity. Answer: D - a mixed design, with a control group and a baseline EEG 24 hours before the injection, to support a cause-and-effect conclusion. (40%)
- Q31
- Students given morning bright light therapy had more beta waves and better maths scores. The best explanation? Answer: B - bright light reduces melatonin release, enhancing neural transmission and alertness. (66%)
- Q32
- The methodology in that study. Answer: D - a controlled experiment with a between-subjects design. (63%)
- Q33
- Why Chen, a mature-age student mocked by younger classmates, wanted to quit. Answer: A - an internal factor: his perception of being too old. (75%)
- Q34
- Chen deciding to quit shows Answer: A - poor mental wellbeing with signs of anxiety. (79%)
- Q35
- A social protective factor to build Chen's resilience. Answer: A - connecting with other mature-age students. Changing how he thinks about others' views is psychological, not social. (66%; 26% chose C.)
- Q36
- Explaining Henry's fear of rocks with the biopsychosocial approach. Answer: C - biological: enhanced synaptic transmission between rock and fear pathways; psychological: classical conditioning precipitated the phobia; social: stigma about seeking treatment. (56%; 31% chose A.)
- Q37
- An intervention to reduce Henry's fear of rocks. Answer: C - CBT: correcting faulty thinking about rocks until he can hold one without fear. (Option B targets bridges, not rocks.) (54%)
- Q38
- In the NAIDOC information, self-determination is best shown by Answer: C - Aboriginal groups being the driving force behind NAIDOC's creation. (70%)
- Q39
- The 2021 theme "Heal Country" reflects the SEWB principle of Answer: B - connection to Country as a way of healing body, mind and spirit. (90%)
- Q40
- NAIDOC is an example of connection to Answer: D - community, fundamental to identity and sense of self. (68%)
Section B
Question 1 (8 marks)
Lana is anxious about forgetting her lines in her first drama performance. The night before, she goes out with friends to take her mind off it and gets too little sleep. On stage, barefoot, she steps on a pin and her leg flinches.
- a
- Identify one physiological response Lana may have as she steps onto the stage. (1 mark)
- b
- With reference to context-specific effectiveness, evaluate her decision to go out the night before. (3 marks)
- c
- Annotate a diagram of the leg and spinal cord to explain what happens when she steps on the pin. (4 marks)
Show worked solution
- a. [1 mark]
- Her heart rate increases (or sweating increases, pupils dilate, breathing rate rises, adrenaline is released): sympathetic nervous system arousal.
- b. [3 marks]
- Context-specific effectiveness is the match between a coping strategy and the particular demands of the stressor. Going out gave Lana a short-term distraction from her worries, but her stressor was remembering lines, and the strategy cost her sleep. Sleep deprivation impairs memory, concentration and mood, making forgetting lines and feeling anxious more likely. So it was a poor match, not context-specifically effective; a good night's sleep or a final run-through would have fitted better.
- c. [4 marks]
- Annotations, placed on the relevant parts of the diagram:
- On the leg, arrow up: sensory receptors in the skin detect the pin, and sensory neurons carry the message to the spinal cord.
- On the spinal cord: interneurons relay the message from the sensory neurons to the motor neurons.
- On the leg muscle: motor neurons carry the message to the leg muscle, which contracts, so the leg flinches.
- Anywhere: this is a spinal reflex, an unconscious response started without the brain; the pain message also travels up to the brain, so she feels it just after the flinch.
From the report. In a, a psychological response (such as nervousness) did not score. In c (27% full marks), notes written beside the diagram rather than on it scored at most 2, and one-word labels scored 1. Neurons do not travel; messages travel along them.
Question 2 (8 marks)
Fifty people did mindfulness meditation for 30 minutes a day, six days a week, for nine months. Cortisol in hair (a measure of prolonged stress) fell by 5% after 3 months and 25% after 6 months, and was still 25% below the starting level after 9 months.
- a
- Identify one role of cortisol in chronic stress. (1 mark)
- b
- Using your knowledge of mindfulness meditation, explain the results. (3 marks)
- c
- Why is mindfulness meditation a more suitable independent variable than adequate nutritional intake for this study? (2 marks)
- d
- Identify one limitation of using questionnaires to measure stress, and explain how testing hair overcomes it. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
- a. [1 mark]
- Cortisol keeps the body at a raised level of arousal by increasing blood glucose for energy (while suppressing systems not immediately needed, such as the immune system).
- b. [3 marks]
- Mindfulness meditation involves paying attention to the present moment (such as the breath) and accepting thoughts and feelings without judgement. Practising it reduces worry and physiological arousal, so there is less stress and less cortisol released. Hair cortisol fell only slightly (5%) after 3 months but by 25% after 6 months, showing the benefit grew with continued practice; it then stayed at 25% below the starting level at 9 months, suggesting the benefit had levelled off.
- c. [2 marks]
- Mindfulness meditation is a single, clearly defined skill that participants can practise consistently for a set time each day, so the independent variable is easy to control. Adequate nutritional intake would mean a major, complex change to daily life, with many more variables to control (and it would be harder for people to stick to), reducing validity.
- d. [2 marks]
- Limitation: questionnaire answers are subjective self-reports, which participants may exaggerate or answer in the way they think is expected. Hair testing gives an objective, physiological measure of cortisol that does not depend on what participants say.
From the report. In b (4% full marks), answers needed both the attention and acceptance parts of mindfulness and a trend across two time points; many misread the table as a further 25% drop at 9 months. In c, "mindfulness is more effective" was not a reason. In d, "qualitative data" alone is not a limitation.
Question 3 (4 marks)
Birds can be taught to avoid predators by pairing the sound of a predator with an unpleasant puff of air, until the sound alone signals danger. Name the behaviourist approach and outline the three-phase process. (4 marks)
Show worked solution
[4 marks]. Classical conditioning.
- Before conditioning: the sound of the predator (neutral stimulus) produces no fear response, while the puff of air (unconditioned stimulus) naturally produces a fear or avoidance response (unconditioned response).
- During conditioning: the sound of the predator is repeatedly presented just before the puff of air, so the bird learns to associate the two.
- After conditioning: the sound of the predator alone (now the conditioned stimulus) produces the fear or avoidance response (the conditioned response).
From the report. Answers had to refer to the sound of the predator, not the predator, and to repetition with the sound coming before the puff of air. A common error was treating the puff of air as the neutral stimulus.
Question 4 (7 marks)
Researchers trained cows to urinate in a toilet pen. In stage 1, cows were kept in separate pens: test cows got a sugar treat after urinating in the pen, while control cows got the same number of treats at random times. In stage 2, test cows were put outside the pen and rewarded after going into the pen and urinating. Most test cows learnt in 15 days; control cows did not.
- a
- Identify the independent and dependent variables in stage 1. (2 marks)
- b
- Why were control cows used? (1 mark)
- c
- Using the language of the appropriate behaviourist approach, explain how the cows learnt in stage 2. (4 marks)
Show worked solution
- a. [2 marks]
- Independent variable: whether the cows received a sugar treat straight after urinating in the pen, or at random times. Dependent variable: whether the cows learnt to urinate in the pen (for example, how often they urinated in the pen).
- b. [1 mark]
- To show that it was the treat following urination that caused the learning, giving a comparison with cows that got the same number of treats unrelated to their behaviour.
- c. [4 marks]
- This is operant conditioning:
- Antecedent: the cow needs to urinate while outside the pen (and sees the pen).
- Behaviour: the cow walks into the pen and urinates.
- Consequence: it receives a sugar treat.
- The treat is positive reinforcement: a pleasant stimulus is added, which strengthens the behaviour and makes the cow more likely to go into the pen to urinate again.
From the report. In a, "treats or no treats" was not accepted: control cows also got treats, just at random times. In c, the terms antecedent, behaviour, consequence and positive reinforcement were all needed.
Question 5 (5 marks)
Aboriginal peoples' songlines have carried knowledge across thousands of years as a strong mnemonic. Explain how songlines act as a mnemonic, including the role of one brain area involved in memory. (5 marks)
Show worked solution
[5 marks].
- What songlines are: knowledge is embedded in song, dance, story and performance that follow a journey across Country, linking places and landmarks in order, and passed on through generations.
- Encoding: combining location, rhythm, movement and a vivid narrative gives multisensory, meaningful information, which is encoded far more deeply than a list of facts; repeated travel and performance strengthen it further.
- Retrieval: each place on the route (or a sacred object) acts as a retrieval cue, and recalling one part of the song or story triggers the next, so large amounts of information can be retrieved in order.
- Brain area: the hippocampus consolidates explicit (episodic and semantic) long-term memories and helps retrieve them, including the links between knowledge and places along the songline. (The amygdala could also be discussed, since emotional significance strengthens encoding.)
From the report. Many answers restated the stem without explaining how songlines aid encoding and retrieval, or merged encoding and retrieval into one idea. Writing "hypothalamus" for hippocampus, or not saying the hippocampus deals with explicit memories, lost marks.
Question 6 (12 marks)
Hugo tested whether a smartphone "night mode" (less blue light) affects adolescents' sleep. He randomly split 18 Year 11 students into three groups of six for a week: A used night mode in the hour before bed, B used their phone without night mode, and C did not use their phone in that hour. Apps tracked phone use and sleep. Results (A, B, C): daily phone use 4.6, 4.7, 4.7 hours; use in the hour before bed 56, 58, 2 minutes; sleep duration 7.5, 6.5, 7.9 hours; deep sleep 18%, 13%, 22%.
- a
- Outline two expected features of the participants' sleep-wake pattern before the experiment. (2 marks)
- b
- What conclusions can Hugo draw about blue light and sleep quality and quantity? Refer to each group. (4 marks)
- c
- Outline how an EOG and an EMG could confirm the sleep app's accuracy in identifying NREM and REM sleep. (2 marks)
- d
- Identify and explain the typical effect on sleep of the zeitgeber studied. (3 marks)
- e
- Why did Hugo include daily phone use in his table? (1 mark)
Show worked solution
- a. [2 marks]
- As late adolescents: a delayed sleep onset (a sleep-wake shift of 1 to 2 hours later) and, given early school starts, too little sleep on school nights (less than the 8 to 10 hours they need) with an irregular pattern across the week.
- b. [4 marks]
- Blue light reduces both sleep quantity and quality. Quantity (sleep duration): Group B, using blue light, slept least (6.5 hours); Group A, with night mode, slept longer (7.5 hours); Group C, with no phone, slept longest (7.9 hours). Quality (percentage of deep sleep): B had the least deep sleep (13%), A more (18%) and C the most (22%). So night mode reduced the harm of phone use, but avoiding phones altogether was best.
- c. [2 marks]
- EOG: when the app shows REM sleep, the EOG should record high electrical activity from the eye muscles (rapid eye movements); in NREM, little or none. EMG: when the app shows REM sleep, the EMG should show almost no muscle activity (muscle atonia); in NREM, low but present activity. Agreement confirms the app is accurate.
- d. [3 marks]
- The zeitgeber is blue light from the phone screen. Light entering the eyes is detected by the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), which signals the pineal gland to delay the release of melatonin. With less melatonin in the evening, the person feels less sleepy, so sleep onset is delayed and sleep is shorter and of poorer quality.
- e. [1 mark]
- To check that daily phone use was similar across the three groups, since it could otherwise be another variable affecting sleep and the results.
From the report. In b, a clear direction was needed ("blue light affects sleep" was not enough), with comparisons across all three groups using words such as higher and lower. In c (6% full marks), answers had to say what each reading would show and link it to the app; amplitude and frequency belong to EEGs. In d, the SCN was essential, and melatonin is released by the pineal gland, not the SCN.
Question 7 (14 marks)
Nightmares occur mostly in REM sleep. A graph shows mean heart rate rising in the 10 minutes before waking from a nightmare, compared with a steady rate in controls. Serotonin, a neuromodulator, helps regulate the sleep-wake cycle and influences dream vividness. People with nightmare disorder can have poor sleep and may even develop a phobia of their bedroom.
- a
- Which subdivision of the peripheral nervous system is involved in the increased heart rate? Justify. (2 marks)
- b
- Evaluate the explanatory power of Lazarus and Folkman's Transactional Model to account for the rise in heart rate during nightmares. (2 marks)
- c
- Identify two characteristics that classify serotonin as a neuromodulator. (2 marks)
- d
- Describe how benzodiazepines could treat a bedroom phobia in people with nightmare disorder, and evaluate their effectiveness. (5 marks)
- e.i
- State one cognitive effect of sleep deprivation likely in nightmare disorder. (1 mark)
- e.ii
- Using an example of catastrophic thinking, outline how the cognitive effects of sleep deprivation affect it. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
- a. [2 marks]
- The autonomic nervous system (sympathetic division). The heart rate rises while the person is still asleep, before they wake, so it is an unconscious response to the frightening nightmare, which is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system.
- b. [2 marks]
- The model has low explanatory power here. It explains stress through conscious psychological appraisals (primary and secondary), but the dreamer is asleep and cannot consciously appraise anything, and the model does not explain physiological responses such as heart rate.
- c. [2 marks]
- Any two: neuromodulators are released into wider neural tissue rather than into a single synapse; they affect many neurons across large brain areas; their effects are slower and longer-lasting; they modify how responsive neurons are to other neurotransmitters.
- d. [5 marks]
- People with a specific phobia often have a GABA dysfunction: too little of this inhibitory neurotransmitter to calm the fear response to the phobic stimulus (here, the bedroom).
- Benzodiazepines are GABA agonists: they bind to GABA receptors and enhance GABA's inhibitory effect, making postsynaptic neurons less likely to fire.
- Taken before bedtime, they reduce the anxiety and physiological fear response to the bedroom, helping the person stay in the room and fall asleep.
- Strength: they act quickly and effectively reduce physiological symptoms in the short term.
- Limitation: they do not treat the cause of the phobia (the learned fear and catastrophic thinking), may need to be taken every night, can cause drowsiness or dependence, and so work best alongside psychological treatment such as systematic desensitisation or CBT.
e.i. [1 mark]. Reduced concentration (or poorer decision-making, or more irrational thinking).
e.ii. [2 marks]. For example: "If I go to sleep in that room I'll have a nightmare so terrifying that I'll have a heart attack." Sleep deprivation impairs logical thinking and emotional regulation, so the person is less able to challenge such exaggerated thoughts; the catastrophic thinking becomes more frequent, more intense and more believable.
From the report. In a, a justification referring to the heart rate or the nightmare was required. Part b was answered poorly (21% full marks): many described the appraisals instead of evaluating the model. In c, "both excitatory and inhibitory" is not unique to neuromodulators. In d, answers had to focus on the bedroom phobia, not on treating nightmares.
Question 8 (12 marks)
One hundred participants were classed as regular travellers (more than 30 days a year away from home) or irregular travellers (fewer than 30). After a night in a hotel, they rated their mental wellbeing from 1 (low) to 4 (high). Average scores: regular travellers 1, irregular travellers 4. Questionnaires completed in under one minute were excluded.
- a
- Graph the data. (3 marks)
- b
- Compare the effect of an unfamiliar environment on the mental wellbeing of the two groups. (3 marks)
- c
- Classify the type of data collected and outline one strength of this type. (2 marks)
- d.i
- What type of variable were the researchers controlling by excluding very fast questionnaires? (1 mark)
- d.ii
- How would the results be affected if they had not? (1 mark)
- e
- Outline how integrity could be applied when administering the questionnaire and reporting the results. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
a. [3 marks]. A bar graph: y-axis "mental wellbeing score (out of 4)" scaled 0 to 4, x-axis "traveller type" with separate, non-touching bars labelled regular (1) and irregular (4).
- b. [3 marks]
- After a night in an unfamiliar hotel, irregular travellers reported high mental wellbeing (4 out of 4), while regular travellers reported low mental wellbeing (1 out of 4). So the unfamiliar environment was associated with much lower wellbeing for regular travellers than for irregular ones.
- c. [2 marks]
- Quantitative data. Strength: numerical scores are easy to summarise and compare (for example, averages), making trends clear.
- d.i. [1 mark]
- An extraneous variable (participants not reading or thinking about the questions).
- d.ii. [1 mark]
- Careless answers would make the wellbeing scores less accurate and reduce internal validity.
- e. [2 marks]
- Administering: design and use questions that genuinely measure travellers' mental wellbeing, as part of a sincere search for knowledge. Reporting: report all results honestly and in full, whether favourable or not, in a way that allows scrutiny (including that fast responses were excluded).
From the report. Part a was well answered (68% full marks). In b, claiming the environment had a bigger effect on regular travellers was not accepted, because there were no before-stay scores to compare. In c, give only one data type: adding a wrong one ("quantitative objective") scored nothing. Part e was difficult (3% full marks): most did not apply integrity to administering the questionnaire.
Question 9 (10 marks)
Forty-five adults were randomly allocated to a psychobiotic diet (high in fermented and prebiotic foods that improve gut health), with education sessions (Condition A, 24 people), or to general healthy-eating advice (Condition B, 21 people), for four weeks. Perceived stress fell by 32% in Condition A and 17% in Condition B. Analyse the results, considering the role and impact of gut microbiota on the gut-brain axis and future research opportunities. Evaluation of the methodology is not required. (10 marks)
Show worked solution
[10 marks]. This is marked holistically against four criteria: terminology, connecting concepts, analysing the data, and drawing conclusions (future research). A strong response could cover the following.
- Terms. The gut-brain axis is the two-way communication between the enteric nervous system in the gut and the central nervous system, mainly via the vagus nerve (most signals travel gut to brain). Gut microbiota are the trillions of microorganisms in the gut. A psychobiotic diet is designed to support healthy, diverse microbiota.
- Role of microbiota. Gut microbiota help produce or regulate neurotransmitters and neuromodulators such as serotonin, GABA and dopamine, and send signals to the brain along the gut-brain axis. A diverse, balanced microbiota is linked to better mood and less stress. The axis works both ways: chronic stress and cortisol can disturb the microbiota, and an unhealthy microbiota can increase susceptibility to stress.
- Analysing the results. Both groups' perceived stress fell, but the psychobiotic-diet group's fell by 32%, nearly double the 17% for the general-advice group. This supports the idea that improving the gut microbiota through diet reduces perceived stress via the gut-brain axis. (The smaller drop in Condition B may reflect general healthy eating or simply taking part.)
- Future research. For example: measure an objective stress marker such as cortisol alongside self-reports; measure microbiota diversity directly to confirm the diet changed it; test people with anxiety or depression rather than healthy adults; study the reverse direction by measuring how stress exposure changes the microbiota; or run longer studies to see whether effects last.
- Conclusion. The results suggest a psychobiotic diet can reduce perceived stress, consistent with gut microbiota influencing the brain through the gut-brain axis, and point to research on the biological mechanisms and on clinical groups.
From the report. Strong answers used all the terms in the question correctly, linked the diet to microbiota to the gut-brain axis to stress, quoted and compared both results, and gave a future study with a reason. Some strong answers without future research still scored 6 or 7; simply suggesting repeating the study scored poorly.
Advice from the 2023 report
- Give only the number of responses asked for. Assessors read only the first answer when a question asks for one.
- State a direction when concluding that one variable affects another (for example, "reduces", not "affects").
- Follow the stem instructions such as "with reference to", "using the language of" and "as part of your answer".
- Link every answer to the scenario, and learn the VCAA command terms.
- Attempt the extended response even if short of time: partial answers still earn marks against the criteria.
Use this paper well
- Sit the paper under exam conditions (150 minutes, 120 marks).
- Mark yourself against the official VCAA marking notes.
- Compare against the Psychology hub to find the syllabus dot points this paper tested.
