HSC Biology 2024
Worked solutions to every question in the 2024 HSC Biology exam. Multiple-choice answers with a one-line reason, and a 'Show worked solution' model answer for each Section II question, aligned to the official NESA marking guidelines.
- Marks
- 100
- Time
- 180 min
- Authority
- NESA
- Updated
Every question from the 2024 HSC Biology exam, with a worked answer. Section II solutions are tucked behind a Show worked solution toggle, so you can attempt a question first and reveal the model answer when you are ready.
How to use this page
- Questions are from the 2024 HSC Biology exam, copyright NSW Education Standards Authority (NESA). Open the official PDF (button above) for the original stimulus diagrams and graphs.
- Answers are original model responses by ExamExplained (Claude Opus 4.8), written to the official marking guidelines, not copied from NESA's sample answers.
- Each Section II solution shows the mark split and a short Marker's note from the notes from the marking centre.
Structure and timing
100 marks in 180 minutes is about 1.8 minutes per mark.
- Section I (20 marks): 20 multiple-choice. Allow about 35 minutes.
- Section II (80 marks): Questions 21 to 35, short and extended response. Allow about 145 minutes, in proportion to the marks. Plan the two 7-mark answers (Questions 32 and 34) before you write.
Section I - Multiple choice
- Q1
- Which of the following are non-cellular pathogens? A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Prions D. Protozoa
Answer: C - prions are misfolded proteins with no cell structure; the others are all cellular. - Q2
- Spinifex resin used to make medicinal creams is an example of? A. Biotechnology B. Selective breeding C. Artificial insemination D. GMOs
Answer: A - using a natural biological product for a human purpose is biotechnology; no breeding or genetic modification. - Q3
- A chromosome shows a section of genes repeated. What mutation is this? A. Deletion B. Duplication C. Inversion D. Substitution
Answer: B - a repeated segment is a duplication. - Q4
- Which row correctly identifies components of DNA? Answer: D - DNA has phosphate, deoxyribose and thymine; ribose and uracil belong to RNA.
- Q5
- A cell with a cell wall and mitochondria is reproducing. Method and organism? Answer: A - budding in a fungus (yeast); a eukaryote, so not bacterial binary fission.
- Q6
- A fruit fly is 2n = 8. How many chromosomes in its egg? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
Answer: B - a gamete is haploid, so half of 8 is 4. - Q7
- How do stomata maintain water balance? Answer: A - they close in hot weather to reduce water loss by transpiration.
- Q8
- Trypanosomes spread by tsetse fly. Pathogen, vector, transmission? Answer: C - trypanosome (pathogen), tsetse fly (vector), indirect (through a vector).
- Q9
- Four mutation sites P, Q, R, S. Which could give a new allele for eye colour? A. P B. Q C. R D. S
Answer: C - R lies inside the eye-colour gene, so a mutation there alters that gene. - Q10
- Redi's experiment with sealed, gauze and open jars. Which is correct? Answer: A - the sealed jar is a control that excludes flies, supporting a valid conclusion that flies cause maggots.
- Q11
- From the obesity data, which statement holds? Answer: C - obese women rise from 13% (18 to 24) to 38% (65 to 74); the other options misread the data.
- Q12
- Koch's criteria in the correct order? A. 2,3,1,4 B. 2,4,1,3 C. 4,2,1,3 D. 4,3,2,1
Answer: C - found only in diseased animals, isolate and culture, cause disease in a healthy animal, re-isolate the same microbe. - Q13
- Which identifies plant responses to pathogens? Answer: D - antimicrobial substances and thicker cell walls (phagocytosis and antihistamines are animal responses).
- Q14
- DNA quantity over time (sections L to P). Which is correct? Answer: A - the cell is dividing in section O, where the DNA quantity halves.
- Q15
- Swine flu, May to July 2009. Best control measures? Answer: A - quarantine arrivals early, then isolate symptomatic cases and promote masks and hand washing.
- Q16
- Light focuses in front of the retina. How is it corrected? Answer: B - a diverging lens (the disorder is short-sightedness, myopia).
- Q17
- Prevalence rises over 12 months if? Answer: D - people survive longer with the disease, so they stay in the "has the disease" group for longer.
- Q18
- Glowworms in an isolated cave, alleles B and b. Process and reason? Answer: B - genetic drift, a change in allele frequency from random events in a small population.
- Q19
- Producing human growth hormone in bacteria works because? Answer: D - restriction enzymes cut both DNAs to leave complementary sticky ends, so the human gene joins the plasmid.
- Q20
- Four pedigrees matched to inheritance type? Answer: C - appearing every generation suggests dominant; skipping generations suggests recessive; a sex bias suggests sex linkage.
Section II - Short and extended response
Question 21 (5 marks)
A flower diagram is labelled stigma, anther, filament, ovary.
(a) Identify the structures where pollen and ovules are located. (2 marks)
(b) Complete the table to compare features of sexual and asexual reproduction. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Pollen is in the anther; ovules are in the ovary.
(b) [3 marks].
| Feature | Sexual | Asexual |
|---|---|---|
| Genetic variability | Yes | No |
| Parents required | 2 | 1 |
| Example organism | Humans | Yeast |
Marker's note. Name the structures shown (anther, ovary - not stamen or pistil) and use specific organisms ("yeast" not "fungi"). Self-pollination is still sexual; external fertilisation (e.g. fish) is still sexual.
Question 22 (4 marks)
A student tested for microbes in water and food samples.
(a) Justify a safety precaution to prevent infection. (2 marks)
(b) Explain how to ensure the reliability of the investigation. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Wear disposable gloves. This stops microbes in the samples contacting the skin, preventing pathogens entering through cuts or being transferred to the mouth, so the risk of infection is reduced.
(b) [2 marks]. Repeat the test. Culture several plates (e.g. five) from the same sample under identical conditions; similar results across the replicates show the data are reliable, and any odd plate is an outlier.
Marker's note. The justification must add reasoning beyond the question stem ("prevents contact with microbes and entry through the skin", not just "prevents infection"). Keep reliability, validity and accuracy distinct.
Question 23 (2 marks)
Outline how ONE type of electromagnetic radiation can cause a germline mutation.
Show worked solution
[2 marks]. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation is absorbed by DNA and can bond adjacent thymine bases into thymine dimers, altering the base sequence. If this happens in the DNA of gametes (sex cells), the change can be inherited, making it a germline mutation. (X-rays or gamma rays are also acceptable.)
Marker's note. Distinguish germline (gametes, heritable) from somatic (body cells, not inherited), and name a radiation that genuinely damages DNA.
Question 24 (5 marks)
(a) Outline the cause of a disease due to environmental exposure. (2 marks)
(b) Explain how an educational program can decrease the incidence of such a disease. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Melanoma (skin cancer) is caused by excessive UV radiation in sunlight. UV is absorbed by DNA in skin cells and causes mutations in genes controlling cell division; accumulated mutations can lead to uncontrolled division and a tumour.
(b) [3 marks]. A campaign such as "Slip, Slop, Slap" teaches that UV damages skin-cell DNA and that covering up, sunscreen and shade reduce exposure. Raising awareness of the cause and the protective behaviours increases the proportion of people using sun protection, so fewer people accumulate UV damage and the incidence of melanoma falls over time.
Marker's note. Name a disease genuinely caused by environmental exposure; give a cause, not a symptom; and link the program's features to a behaviour change and then to reduced incidence.
Question 25 (6 marks)
One-Eyed Jack lost an eye through injury, was cloned, and the clone had two eyes.
(a) Explain why the cloned dog was born with two eyes. (2 marks)
(b) Describe how animals like dogs can be cloned. (4 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Jack lost his eye through injury, not a change to his DNA. His genome still carried the instructions for two eyes, and cloning copies the nuclear DNA, so the clone inherited the unaltered code. The injury was an acquired, non-heritable change.
(b) [4 marks]. By somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT):
- Remove the nucleus from a donor egg (enucleation).
- Take the nucleus (full genome) from a body cell of the animal to be cloned.
- Insert that nucleus into the enucleated egg.
- Stimulate the egg, usually with an electric current, to divide like a zygote.
- Implant the embryo into a surrogate mother.
- The surrogate gives birth to a clone genetically identical to the nucleus donor.
Marker's note. In (a), tie the unaltered genome to the two-eyed outcome. In (b), give the SCNT steps in sequence, including enucleation, electrical stimulation and the surrogate.
Question 26 (4 marks)
Describe a plant disease and its effect on agricultural production.
Show worked solution
[4 marks]. Wheat stem rust (fungus Puccinia graminis) infects wheat, producing reddish-brown pustules of spores on stems and leaves. These rupture the surface, reduce photosynthesis and weaken the stem so plants lodge (fall over). The result is shrivelled, poor-quality grain and much lower yield, causing major economic losses for farmers. (Other named diseases such as stone-fruit scab or potato blight are equally acceptable.)
Marker's note. Name a specific plant disease, describe its signs, and give a directional effect on production (reduced yield or quality), not just "it has an impact".
Question 27 (5 marks)
A graph shows disease outbreaks linked to raw and pasteurised milk, 1900 to 1975. Explain the trends, referring to the role of Pasteur's work.
Show worked solution
[5 marks]. Outbreaks linked to raw milk were high and variable early on (around 50 to 70) but fell sharply after about 1945 to fewer than 10, while outbreaks linked to pasteurised milk stayed consistently low (under 5) throughout.
Pasteur disproved spontaneous generation, showing microbes already present in a substance cause disease, and that heating kills most of them. Pasteurisation applies this: heating milk to about 70 degrees C kills the bacteria that cause milk-borne disease, which is why pasteurised milk produced so few outbreaks. The steep fall in raw-milk outbreaks after 1945 reflects wider pasteurisation and fewer people drinking raw milk; the few pasteurised-milk outbreaks come from failures in heating, storage or transport.
Marker's note. Quote specific data and a date ("after 1945, raw-milk outbreaks fell from about 50 to under 10") and connect Pasteur's findings directly to the trends.
Question 28 (7 marks)
Cystic fibrosis is caused by two faulty recessive CFTR alleles.
(a) Two healthy heterozygous parents have a child without cystic fibrosis. Using a Punnett square, find the probability the second child has the condition. (3 marks)
(b) Using the codon chart, explain how deleting three nucleotides removes only one amino acid, referring to isoleucine and phenylalanine. (4 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [3 marks]. Both parents are carriers, Rr. The cross Rr x Rr:
| R | r | |
|---|---|---|
| R | RR | Rr |
| r | Rr | rr |
Ratio 1 RR : 2 Rr : 1 rr. Only rr has cystic fibrosis, so the probability is 1/4 = 25% (independent of the first child).
(b) [4 marks]. Each amino acid is coded by a three-base codon. The three deleted nucleotides span the boundary between the isoleucine (507) and phenylalanine (508) codons. Removing exactly three bases keeps the reading frame (no frameshift), but the remaining bases re-form a codon that still codes for isoleucine, because the code is degenerate (AUC and AUU both code for isoleucine). So isoleucine is still made, but the phenylalanine codon is lost, removing only that one amino acid.
Marker's note. State the probability in one consistent form (not 1/4 and 33%). In (b), use the chart to show the deletion spans two codons yet, by degeneracy, the remaining triplet still codes for isoleucine.
Question 29 (5 marks)
Type 2 diabetes data: 1990 (3.1%), 2000 (3.7%), 2010 (4.3%), 2020 (5.6%).
(a) Plot the data with a line of best fit. (2 marks)
(b) For a projected 9 billion people in 2040, predict the number affected. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Plot (1990, 3.1), (2000, 3.7), (2010, 4.3), (2020, 5.6) with percentage on the y-axis and year on the x-axis, then draw one straight line of best fit balancing the points. The trend is a steady rise.
(b) [3 marks]. Extrapolating the line to 2040 gives about 7%.
So about 630 million people. (A reading of 6 to 7%, giving roughly 540 to 630 million, is acceptable from a reasonable line.)
Marker's note. Plot accurately, draw a balanced line of best fit, show the extrapolation on the graph, and show the percentage calculation with the large number.
Question 30 (8 marks)
Process A occurs in the nucleus, Process B at the ribosomes.
(a) Compare Process A with DNA replication. (3 marks)
(b) Explain the importance of mRNA and tRNA in polypeptide synthesis. (5 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [3 marks]. Process A is transcription.
- Similarity: both unwind the DNA and build a new strand by complementary base pairing against a template.
- Differences: replication copies the whole molecule into two double-stranded DNA molecules using DNA polymerase (A with T); transcription copies one gene into single-stranded mRNA using RNA polymerase (A with U). Replication happens once before division; transcription happens whenever a gene is expressed.
(b) [5 marks].
- mRNA is transcribed from the DNA template in the nucleus and carries the message, as a sequence of codons, to a ribosome. Its codon order sets the amino acid order, so it is the template for translation.
- tRNA has an anticodon at one end and a specific amino acid at the other. At the ribosome each anticodon pairs with the complementary mRNA codon, delivering the right amino acid in the right order.
- Together: as the ribosome moves along the mRNA, successive tRNAs add their amino acids and peptide bonds form, building a polypeptide whose sequence is set by the mRNA. Without mRNA there is no template; without tRNA the amino acids cannot be matched to codons.
Marker's note. In (a) compare the same feature for both (product, enzyme, T versus U). In (b) use correct terms (codon, anticodon, complementary) and link mRNA and tRNA to building the polypeptide.
Question 31 (6 marks)
A graph shows the body temperature of a kookaburra and a human over 24 hours.
(a) At what time was the kookaburra's body temperature lowest? (1 mark)
(b) With reference to the graph, explain whether the human or kookaburra displayed torpor, and when. (3 marks)
(c) Outline an adaptation that could raise the kookaburra's temperature in the inactive period. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
- (a) [1 mark]
- 4 am.
- (b) [3 marks]
- The kookaburra displayed torpor: its temperature fell from about 39 degrees C in the evening to a low near 4 am before rising - a significant drop in physiological activity. The human did not: its temperature stayed near 37 degrees C throughout, showing tight homeostatic control.
- (c) [2 marks]
- The kookaburra can fluff up its feathers, trapping insulating air to reduce heat loss; with shivering (muscle contractions that release heat), this raises its body temperature.
Marker's note. Read the x-axis carefully in (a). In (b) name the organism and justify with specific temperatures and times. In (c) give an adaptation that genuinely generates or retains heat.
Question 32 (7 marks)
With reference to innate and adaptive immunity, explain how the body responds after exposure to Helicobacter pylori in the gut lining.
Show worked solution
- [7 marks]
- The body responds first with innate, then adaptive immunity.
- Innate (rapid, non-specific)
- damaged cells and bacteria release chemicals (e.g. histamine) that trigger inflammation. Blood vessels dilate and become leaky, bringing phagocytes (neutrophils and macrophages) that engulf the bacteria by phagocytosis.
- Adaptive (slower, specific)
- macrophages present H. pylori antigens to helper T cells, which release cytokines that activate the specific response:
- B cells become plasma cells that secrete antibodies, neutralising the bacteria and tagging them for phagocytes.
- Cytotoxic T cells destroy infected cells.
- Memory B and T cells remain for a faster secondary response.
Together the innate response gives immediate defence and the adaptive response gives specific, long-lasting immunity to clear H. pylori.
Marker's note. Structure the answer around the lines of defence, show innate and adaptive working together, and use the stimulus (gut lining, inflammatory cells).
Question 33 (4 marks)
Female Jack Jumper ants have one pair of chromosomes; crossing over occurs in meiosis.
(a) Outline the significance of crossing over for the ants. (2 marks)
(b) Draw the four possible gametes after crossing over, with alleles. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Crossing over swaps segments between homologous chromosomes, making new allele combinations. This increases genetic variation in the gametes and offspring, giving the population a better chance of surviving environmental change.
(b) [2 marks]. Four single chromosomes (two parental, two recombinant), using the loci D/d, E/e, H/h shown:
- Parental: D E H
- Parental: d e h
- Recombinant: D E h
- Recombinant: d e H
Each gamete gets one single chromosome; the recombinants show the swapped alleles. (Exact recombinant alleles depend on the crossover point in the diagram.)
Marker's note. In (a) link crossing over to variation, then to survival. In (b) draw single chromosomes (not pairs) with alleles at the correct loci; distinguish chromosomes from chromatids.
Question 34 (7 marks)
Discuss the ethical implications and impacts on society of the use of TWO biotechnologies.
Show worked solution
[7 marks].
1. Recombinant DNA technology (GM crops, e.g. Bt cotton). A bacterial insecticidal gene is inserted so the crop makes its own pest protection.
- Impact: higher yields and less chemical insecticide, lowering costs and increasing food supply.
- Ethics: the seeds are patented and bought each season, so farmers cannot save seed - this disadvantages poorer farmers and concentrates control with a few companies, raising equity concerns.
2. Selective breeding and hybridisation (e.g. high-yield dairy cattle). Animals with desired traits are bred over generations.
- Impact: greater milk yields and cheaper food for consumers and farmers.
- Ethics: intense selection for one trait has reduced fertility and caused welfare problems, and lowers genetic diversity, making herds more disease-prone.
Both offer real benefits (more food, higher yields, lower cost) but raise genuine ethical concerns - equity and corporate control, and animal welfare - that society must weigh.
Marker's note. Pick two genuine biotechnologies with specific examples; for each link a clear impact to a specific ethical implication, and discuss (weigh) rather than list.
Question 35 (5 marks)
A graph shows whether children changed their communication method after cochlear implantation, by age. With reference to the data, describe how cochlear implants work and how they affect communication in children.
Show worked solution
[5 marks]. How they work: a cochlear implant is used when the cochlea's hair cells are damaged. A microphone and processor convert sound to electrical signals sent to electrodes in the cochlea, which bypass the damaged hair cells and directly stimulate the auditory nerve, carrying the signal to the brain.
Effect (with the data): age at implantation matters. Implanted young, children sharply reduce sign language (only about 10% still use it five years later), shifting to spoken communication. Implanted at three to five years, they reduce sign language less. Implanted over five years, they keep using sign language and change little. So implants shift children toward spoken communication most when fitted younger.
Marker's note. Say the implant directly stimulates the auditory nerve (bypassing the cochlea) and refer to the data for every age group, comparing the trends.
General marker feedback
Stronger responses across the paper: read the question and answered every part; planned extended responses so they flowed logically; used correct scientific terms; referred directly to the stimulus and quoted specific data; and in calculations, showed all working with units.
Use this paper well
- Sit the paper under exam conditions (180 minutes, 100 marks).
- Mark yourself against the official NESA marking notes.
- Compare against the Biology hub to find the syllabus dot points this paper tested.
