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NSWBiology2021

HSC Biology 2021

Worked solutions to every question in the 2021 HSC Biology exam. Multiple-choice answers with a one-line reason, and a 'Show worked solution' model answer for each Section II question, aligned to the official NESA marking guidelines.

Marks
100
Time
180 min
Authority
NESA
Updated

Every question from the 2021 HSC Biology exam, with a worked answer. Section II solutions are tucked behind a Show worked solution toggle, so you can attempt a question first and reveal the model answer when you are ready.

How to use this page

  • Questions are from the 2021 HSC Biology exam, copyright NSW Education Standards Authority (NESA). Open the official PDF (button above) for the original stimulus diagrams and graphs.
  • Answers are original model responses by ExamExplained (Claude Opus 4.8), written to the official marking guidelines, not copied from NESA's sample answers.
  • Each Section II solution shows the mark split and a short Marker's note from the notes from the marking centre.

Structure and timing

100 marks in 180 minutes is about 1.8 minutes per mark.

  • Section I (20 marks): 20 multiple-choice. Allow about 35 minutes.
  • Section II (80 marks): Questions 21 to 33, short and extended response. Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes, in proportion to the marks. Plan the 15-mark Question 33 (an (a)/(b)/(c) build to a 9-mark analysis) and the 7-mark Question 30 before you write.

Section I - Multiple choice

Q1
A patient felt tired and weak with a swollen neck; symptoms cleared after eating iodised salt. Most likely cause? A. Cancer B. Genetic disorder C. Nutritional deficiency D. Environmental exposure
Answer: C - a missing dietary nutrient (iodine) fixed by iodised salt is a nutritional deficiency (goitre).
Q2
Which photograph shows sexual reproduction? A. Yeast budding B. Bacteria binary fission C. Strawberry runners D. Frog spawning
Answer: D - frog spawning fuses gametes from two parents; the others are asexual.
Q3
A scientist transferred male gametes from one plant to another for a desired trait. Which technology? A. Gene cloning B. Artificial pollination C. Artificial insemination D. Whole organism cloning
Answer: B - moving pollen (plant male gametes) between plants is artificial pollination.
Q4
Most effective strategy for treating non-infectious diseases? A. Hygiene B. Pharmaceuticals C. Quarantine D. Vaccination
Answer: B - non-infectious disease is not spread, so hygiene, quarantine and vaccines do not treat it; medicines do.
Q5
Hormone levels soon after a high glucose meal? A. Insulin falls, glucagon rises B. Both fall C. Insulin rises, glucagon falls D. Both rise
Answer: C - high blood glucose raises insulin (to store glucose) and lowers glucagon.
Q6
A DNA deletion is illustrated. Which statement is correct? A. It will affect many genes B. It affects only one codon C. It may result from an error during translation D. It may result from an error during transcription
Answer: A - the deleted area spans a large segment, so many genes are affected.
Q7
Which row shows correct base pairing in DNA replication? Answer: C - DNA pairs A with T and G with C (no uracil); option C gives the correct complementary DNA strand.
Q8
Florey infected eight mice; four given penicillin survived, four untreated died. What conclusion? A. Repeat with more mice B. Penicillin causes resistance C. Penicillin is safe in humans D. Penicillin may have played a role in survival of the four treated mice
Answer: D - the data support only that penicillin may have aided survival, not the broader claims.
Q9
Streptomycin interferes with bacterial ribosomes. Primary effect is it prevents production of? A. tRNA B. mRNA C. amino acids D. polypeptides
Answer: D - ribosomes build polypeptides, so blocking them stops polypeptide (protein) synthesis.
Q10
Allele frequencies: A 98.33%, a1 1.13%, a2 0.08%, a3 0.07%. Most common genotype of cystic fibrosis patients? A. a1/a1 B. a1/a2 C. A/a1 D. A/A
Answer: A - patients need two recessive alleles; a1 is by far the commonest recessive, so a1/a1.
Q11
A transgene appears in wild relatives of crops. Most likely reason? A. Crossing over B. Gene flow from the crops to the wild plants C. Genetic drift D. Mutations matching the transgenes
Answer: B - pollen carrying the transgene moves into wild relatives, which is gene flow.
Q12
Pregnancy hormone graph (oestrogen, progesterone, HCG). Which can be inferred? A. Birth at week 36 B. Fertilisation at day 0 C. Implantation about week 4 D. Placenta formed about week 24
Answer: C - HCG, secreted by the implanted embryo, rises from about week 4, indicating implantation.
Q13
Which graph best illustrates stomata regulating water balance? Answer: A - stomatal width should rise with soil water content (more water, wider opening), the trend option A shows.
Q14
Which best classifies Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)? A. Both genetic and infectious B. Genetic only C. Not infectious because the prion is non-cellular D. Infectious, with the normal prion as the pathogen
Answer: A - CJD can arise from a PRNP mutation (genetic) or from ingesting misfolded prions (infectious).
Q15
UV mutagenic effect on DNA modelled in the diagram? A. Thymine duplicated B. Bonds form between adjacent bases C. Nucleotides bond in the backbone D. Thymines on the two strands bond
Answer: B - UV bonds adjacent thymines on the same strand (a thymine dimer).
Q16
Agar-plate UV results (365, 55, 6, 2 colonies as dose rises). Conclusion? A. Control plates contaminated B. High UV eliminates all pathogens C. UV inhibits reproduction of bacteria D. Bacteria reduce the amount of UV
Answer: C - colony counts fall but do not reach zero, so UV inhibits rather than eliminates.
Q17
Which statement is true for mitosis? A. Crossing over in prophase B. Sister chromatids separate in anaphase C. Two daughter cells in telophase D. Homologous pairs line up in metaphase
Answer: B - in mitosis sister chromatids separate at anaphase; crossing over and homologue pairing belong to meiosis.
Q18
Which pedigree shows recessive, sex-linked inheritance? Answer: D - the pattern with affected males inheriting through carrier mothers and skipping generations fits X-linked recessive.
Q19
The ALDH alleles differ in their? A. Genome location B. Location in gametes C. Effect on phenotype D. Amino acid composition
Answer: C - alleles of the same gene sit at the same locus but differ in phenotypic effect (acetaldehyde breakdown).
Q20
What do the data show about the ALDH2 allele? A. Activity highest in homozygous mice B. Activity decreases if ALDH2 is present C. Activity increases if ALDH2 present D. Activity lowest in wild-type
Answer: B - acetaldehyde stays higher when ALDH2 is present, showing reduced enzyme activity.

Section II - Short and extended response

Question 21 (7 marks)

A diagram shows a bacterium at a 1 micrometre scale.
(a) Label TWO features on the diagram that would help to classify this pathogen as a bacterium. (2 marks)
(b) A scientist followed Koch's postulates to confirm this bacterium was causing diarrhoea in pigs. Complete the boxes in the flowchart to show the steps taken. (2 marks)
(c) Two neighbouring farms each adopted a different strategy: Farm 1 treated with antibiotics (all pigs recovered after two weeks); Farm 2 eliminated rats and mice to improve hygiene (decrease in sick animals over three months). Outline ONE benefit and ONE limitation of the strategies used on each farm. (3 marks)

Show worked solution

(a) [2 marks]. Label any TWO prokaryotic features visible on the cell, for example the cell wall (rigid outer boundary), the plasma membrane, and the free DNA / nucleoid (no membrane-bound nucleus). The absence of membrane-bound organelles is also acceptable.

(b) [2 marks]. The two missing flowchart boxes are:

  1. Box 1 (after isolating the bacterium from Pig 1): culture and grow (multiply) the isolated bacterium in the laboratory.
  2. Box 2 (after feeding the bacteria to healthy Pig 2): the healthy pig develops the same disease (diarrhoea).

This completes Koch's postulates: isolate from a sick animal, culture it, give it to a healthy animal that then gets the disease, and re-isolate the same bacterium from Pig 2 to compare with Pig 1.

(c) [3 marks].

  • Farm 1 (antibiotics): benefit - it clears the infection quickly (recovery within two weeks). Limitation - repeated use selects for antibiotic resistance, so it loses effectiveness over time and treats rather than prevents.
  • Farm 2 (hygiene / pest removal): benefit - removing the rats and mice removes a disease reservoir, a long-term, preventive solution with no resistance problem. Limitation - it acts slowly (three months) and does not cure animals that are already sick.

Marker's note. Label real bacterial features with clear leader lines. In (b) apply Koch's postulates to the flowchart, not just generic steps. In (c) develop the table with your own knowledge rather than copying it, and keep prevention (Farm 2) distinct from treatment (Farm 1), giving a benefit and a limitation for each.

Question 22 (3 marks)

In a population of rabbits, black fur is dominant over white. A black rabbit, whose mother has white fur, mates with a white rabbit. Predict the phenotypic ratio for the offspring of this cross. Show your working.

Show worked solution

[3 marks]. Let B = black (dominant), b = white (recessive). The black rabbit's mother is white (bb), so she could only pass a b allele; the black rabbit must therefore be heterozygous Bb. The white partner is bb.

Cross Bb x bb:

b b
B Bb Bb
b bb bb

Offspring are 2 Bb (black) : 2 bb (white). Phenotypic ratio black : white = 1 : 1.

Marker's note. Deduce the black rabbit is heterozygous from its white mother, draw a labelled Punnett square with a key, and quote the phenotypic ratio (1 black : 1 white), not just the genotypic ratio.

Question 23 (3 marks)

Ovulation is associated with a rapid increase in luteinising hormone (LH); test strips detect high LH in urine. A used strip should show a control line, and a test line indicates high LH. Four results (1 to 4) are shown. Which of the results indicates a valid test which shows that ovulation is NOT occurring? Justify your answer.

Show worked solution

[3 marks]. Strip 2. Its control line is present, so the test has worked correctly and the result is valid. It shows no test line, meaning LH is not high, so there has been no LH surge and ovulation is not occurring. Strips 3 and 4 lack a control line, so those tests are invalid and cannot be trusted regardless of the test line.

Marker's note. Engage with the whole stimulus, not just the picture. Distinguish the control line (shows the test worked, gives validity) from the test line (shows the LH result), and pick the strip that is both valid and negative.

Question 24 (7 marks)

An autosomal dominant trait is shown in a pedigree.
(a) Is this trait likely to be the result of a somatic or a germ-line mutation? Justify your answer. (3 marks)
(b) A diagram shows monozygotic (identical) twins forming from a fertilised egg. Mutation A occurs early so both twins carry it in all cells; Mutation B occurs in Twin 1 before cell differentiation; Mutation C occurs in Twin 2 after differentiation into somatic cells. Explain the effects of Mutation B and Mutation C on each twin and on any offspring they may have. (4 marks)

Show worked solution

(a) [3 marks]. It is likely a somatic mutation. The trait is dominant, yet it appears in the affected male while his parents and his offspring are unaffected. A germ-line mutation arises in the cells that form gametes, so a dominant germ-line change would usually be inherited and seen in his offspring. Because it is not passed on, the mutation most likely occurred in body (somatic) cells of that individual only.

(b) [4 marks].

  • Mutation B occurs in Twin 1 before cell differentiation, so it ends up in both Twin 1's somatic cells and germ (gamete-forming) cells. Twin 1 shows the effect in their body, and because it is in the germ line it can be passed to Twin 1's offspring. Twin 2 is unaffected.
  • Mutation C occurs in Twin 2 after differentiation, in cells leading only to somatic cells. So it affects Twin 2's body cells but is absent from their germ cells, meaning Twin 2 cannot pass it to offspring. Twin 1 is unaffected by Mutation C.

Marker's note. Use the correct terms (somatic, germ-line, autosomal, dominant). In (a) justify from the pedigree (present in the affected man but not in parents or offspring). In (b) tie the timing of each mutation relative to cell differentiation to whether it reaches the germ line and so whether it can be inherited.

Question 25 (8 marks)

A patient's hearing test gives the minimum volume (dB) at which each frequency is detected, for the right and left ear, from 250 Hz to 8000 Hz (the right ear ranges 5 to 20 dB; the left ear 55 to 100 dB).
(a) Plot the data on the grid provided and include a key. (3 marks)
(b) What conclusions can be drawn about the patient's hearing? (2 marks)
(c) There is a complete and permanent blockage of the outer ear, but the cochlea is still fully functional. Justify the use of a suitable technology to assist the patient's hearing. (3 marks)

Show worked solution

(a) [3 marks]. Plot frequency (Hz) on the x-axis and minimum detectable volume (dB) on the y-axis. Plot the right-ear points (250, 5), (500, 9), (1000, 9), (2000, 5), (4000, 9), (8000, 20) and the left-ear points (250, 55), (500, 60), (1000, 75), (2000, 75), (4000, 80), (8000, 100). Use small, precise markers and a key with two different symbols (one per ear); do not join the points or add a line of best fit.

(b) [2 marks]. The right ear has normal hearing - it detects every frequency at low volumes (about 5 to 20 dB, in the normal range). The left ear has a hearing deficit - it needs much louder sound (55 to 100 dB) to detect the same frequencies, and the volume needed rises as frequency increases, so the higher frequencies are hardest for the left ear.

(c) [3 marks]. A bone conduction implant (or bone conduction hearing aid) is suitable. The outer ear is fully blocked, so a normal aid that sends sound down the ear canal cannot help, but the cochlea still works. A bone conduction device picks up sound with a microphone, converts it to vibrations in a processor, and passes those vibrations through the skull bone directly to the working cochlea, bypassing the blocked outer ear. This restores useful hearing, which is why it is the right choice here.

Marker's note. In (a) plot precisely with small markers and a clear key, reading the dB axis carefully; do not draw a line of best fit. In (b) give one conclusion per ear without repeating yourself, and avoid claiming the left ear is deaf. In (c) match the technology to the stimulus (blocked outer ear, working cochlea), and explain how it works as the justification.

Question 26 (4 marks)

Zebra populations are suffering a reduction in gene pools through habitat destruction and increasing isolation. This has led to more offspring born with coat patterns different to their parents (a spotted foal is shown). Explain possible reasons for the increase in these offspring.

Show worked solution

[4 marks]. As habitat is destroyed, the zebra populations become smaller and more isolated, reducing gene flow between groups. Small, isolated populations breed among close relatives (inbreeding), which shrinks the gene pool. Many mutations are recessive and hidden in carriers; inbreeding raises the chance that an offspring inherits two copies of the same recessive allele, so the allele is expressed and the foal shows a phenotype (such as the spotted coat) different from its parents. Over generations, the reduced gene pool and accumulation of these recessive alleles increase the frequency of such offspring.

Marker's note. Link the reduced gene pool and isolation to inbreeding, then to the expression of two recessive alleles, then to the changed phenotype. Use the stimulus rather than inventing natural selection or cross-species hybridisation; a smaller gene pool amplifies existing mutations, it does not cause them.

Question 27 (3 marks)

Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder. Both parents are heterozygous for the causative mutation. They have two unaffected children and are expecting a third. A DNA profile shows the alleles present for the mother, father, Child 1, Child 2 and Child 3. Use the DNA profile to justify whether Child 3 will have sickle cell anaemia.

Show worked solution

[3 marks]. Read the bands as alleles. The mother, father and Child 2 each show two bands, so they are heterozygous carriers (Aa) - unaffected. Child 1 shows a single band matching the normal allele, so is homozygous normal (AA). Child 3 shows a single band, in the position of the recessive (sickle) allele that the carriers also carry, so Child 3 is homozygous recessive (aa). Therefore Child 3 will have sickle cell anaemia, having inherited a recessive allele from each carrier parent.

Marker's note. Make a definitive statement (Child 3 will have sickle cell anaemia), not a probabilistic one. Read a single band as homozygous and two bands as heterozygous, and justify directly from the profile - this is determined by the bands, not by a Punnett square.

Question 28 (8 marks)

(a) Describe the role of mRNA in human cells. (3 marks)
(b) An mRNA vaccine contains modified mRNA which codes for the spike protein on the surface of a virus. Explain how this vaccine can lead to active immunity to the virus. (5 marks)

Show worked solution

(a) [3 marks]. mRNA carries a complementary copy of a gene's coding sequence out of the nucleus to the ribosomes. During transcription, RNA polymerase builds the mRNA against the DNA template; the mRNA then acts as the template for translation. Each codon (three nucleotides) on the mRNA specifies one amino acid, so the order of codons sets the order of amino acids added to the growing polypeptide chain.

(b) [5 marks]. The vaccine's mRNA enters body cells and is translated at the ribosomes, so the cells make the viral spike protein. Because the spike protein is foreign (not coded for by the human genome), it acts as an antigen. This triggers a specific adaptive response: helper T cells activate B cells, which become plasma cells producing antibodies against the spike protein, and cytotoxic T cells respond. After the response, memory B and memory T cells specific to the spike protein remain. If the person later meets the real virus, its surface spike proteins are recognised by these memory cells, which mount a rapid, large secondary response that clears the virus before illness develops. This self-made, lasting protection is active immunity.

Marker's note. In (a) use correct terms (codon, complementary, template, ribosome) and keep mRNA's role distinct from DNA replication. In (b) be clear the mRNA is not itself the antigen - it leads the body to make the spike protein, which is the antigen - and link this to memory B and T cells and a faster future response (active, not passive, immunity).

Question 29 (4 marks)

The koala maintains a stable body temperature near 36.6 degrees C. Koala posture and ambient temperature (hot above 30 degrees C, mild below 25 degrees C) were recorded. Additional data showed some tree trunks were up to 9 degrees C cooler than air during hot conditions. Explain the adaptations used by the koalas to maintain a stable body temperature. Make reference to the stimulus provided.

Show worked solution

[4 marks]. The koalas use behavioural adaptations, changing posture with the ambient temperature shown in the graph. In mild conditions they were more often observed curled up, which minimises the body surface area exposed to the air and so reduces heat loss - keeping warm. In hot conditions they were more often observed leaning back to expose the ventral (belly) surface and hugging tree trunks. Because the stimulus shows trunks can be up to 9 degrees C cooler than the air, pressing the belly against the cool trunk uses it as a heat sink, conducting body heat away and increasing heat loss to stay cool. By switching posture (and surface area exposed) with the temperature, the koala balances heat gain and loss and keeps its temperature stable. Directing blood flow to the belly against the trunk is an acceptable physiological extension.

Marker's note. Link each posture to the ambient temperature in the graph and to a change in exposed surface area, then to heat loss or retention. Use the stimulus - especially the cool-trunk data - rather than describing adaptations in the abstract.

Question 30 (7 marks)

A study compared 8134 measles-vaccinated children with 8134 matched unvaccinated children. Graphs show measles cases in each group over three years; a table shows deaths by cause over the same period (Measles 2 vaccinated vs 40 unvaccinated; Diarrhoea and dysentery 85 vs 156; Oedema 6 vs 21; Fever 22 vs 25; Total 115 vs 242). Analyse the data with reference to the statement that a vaccine only protects the community against a specific disease.

Show worked solution
[7 marks]
The data both support and challenge the statement.
Supporting it (vaccine is specific)
the graphs show measles cases in the vaccinated group were consistently very low, sometimes zero, while the unvaccinated group had large, recurring outbreaks. The table agrees: only 2 vaccinated children died of measles versus 40 unvaccinated. As the two groups were matched for age, sex, dwelling, siblings and maternal education, this difference is most likely due to the vaccine protecting specifically against measles. Fever deaths were almost equal (22 vaccinated vs 25 unvaccinated), a difference of only 3, suggesting no protection against that unrelated cause - consistent with the statement.
Challenging it (wider protection)
the vaccinated group also had fewer deaths from diseases other than measles. Diarrhoea and dysentery deaths were 85 vaccinated vs 156 unvaccinated (about half), and oedema deaths 6 vs 21 (under one third). Total deaths were 115 vaccinated vs 242 unvaccinated, again about half. This suggests the vaccine had broader, non-specific benefits beyond measles, which contradicts the statement.
Judgement
overall the data show the measles vaccine clearly protected against measles, but the lower mortality from several other causes means the claim that it protects only against one specific disease needs qualification. The small oedema numbers mean that part needs further study.

Marker's note. Use every part of the stimulus and manipulate the data, not just restate it (for example "85 vs 156, about half" rather than "more in the unvaccinated"). Give arguments both for and against the statement, draw on the matched design, and reach a clear, qualified judgement.

Question 31 (6 marks)

A study of 60 patients who had stopped statins because of side-effects had them take statin tablets for four months, placebo tablets for four months and no tablets for four months, scoring symptoms daily from 0 to 100. Average symptom scores were: statin 16.3, placebo 15.4, no tablets 8.0. Evaluate this study and its results.

Show worked solution
[6 marks]
Interpreting the results: symptoms persisted even in the no-tablet period (score 8.0), and the placebo score (15.4) was almost as high as the statin score (16.3) and roughly double the no-tablet score. Because statin and placebo gave very similar scores, the side-effects appear to be largely a placebo (or nocebo) effect rather than caused by the statin's active ingredient.
Evaluating the design
the study has serious limitations. The sample of only 60 patients is far too small to generalise to the millions who take statins, so the results are not reliable. The patients self-scored their own symptoms subjectively from 0 to 100, which is not an accurate, objective measurement. There was also no separate control group for comparison. These flaws mean the study is not valid and firm conclusions cannot be drawn.
Judgement
the study is not valid and its results are inconclusive, but it is still useful because it suggests a much larger randomised controlled trial would be worthwhile to test whether statins genuinely cause these side-effects.

Marker's note. Address both the study design and the results. Use the terms reliability, accuracy and validity correctly, note the purpose of the placebo (to test whether the statin itself causes the symptoms), and link the design flaws (tiny sample, self-reported scores, no control) to the inconclusive outcome.

Question 32 (5 marks)

A flowchart shows negative feedback by testosterone and inhibin in a human male (hypothalamus to anterior pituitary via releasing hormone, then LH and FSH to the testes - Leydig cells and Sertoli cells - producing testosterone and inhibin, which feed back). Some athletes take anabolic steroids (testosterone or synthetic modifications). Explain the changes that would occur in the testes of a male athlete continuously taking anabolic steroids. Support your answer with reference to the flowchart.

Show worked solution

[5 marks]. Normally the hypothalamus releases releasing hormone, which makes the anterior pituitary secrete LH and FSH; these stimulate the testes (Leydig cells to make testosterone, Sertoli cells to support sperm production), and the testosterone and inhibin produced feed back negatively on the hypothalamus and pituitary to keep levels balanced.

When the athlete continuously takes anabolic steroids (which act like testosterone), the body senses persistently high testosterone. Through the negative feedback loop shown, this strongly inhibits the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, so much less releasing hormone, LH and FSH are released. With little LH and FSH reaching the testes, the testes are no longer stimulated: the Leydig cells make far less of their own testosterone and the Sertoli cells reduce sperm production, so inhibin also falls. With prolonged use the testes receive almost no stimulation, shrink and lose normal function (reduced sperm and reduced natural testosterone production).

Marker's note. Interpret the flowchart correctly, including the negative (inhibitory) signs. Explain cause and effect: external steroid raises feedback, suppressing LH and FSH, which reduces testicular stimulation, sperm production and natural hormone output. Keep negative feedback distinct from positive feedback.

Question 33 (15 marks)

Genetically engineered Atlantic salmon carry a transgene combining a Chinook salmon growth-hormone coding sequence and an Ocean Pout antifreeze-protein promoter. A diagram shows production steps 1 to 7 (involving bacteria, salmon eggs, Chinook salmon and Ocean Pout).
(a) Explain the processes shown in steps 1 to 4. (3 marks)
(b) A graph compares growth of standard and transgenic salmon. Explain ONE potential benefit of using transgenic salmon in aquaculture. Support your answer with data from the graph. (3 marks)
(c) Transgenic fish can pass on the dominant transgene (T). Reproduction is controlled by techniques to protect and preserve biodiversity: (1) homozygous TT female (XX) stock kept in quarantine; (2) hormone treatment causes sex reversal so females develop male organs and produce sperm; (3) that sperm fertilises eggs from wild-type, non-transgenic salmon; (4) eggs are pressure-shocked to prevent meiosis II, giving triploid (XXX) offspring, all transgenic females that cannot develop sex organs; (5) offspring are grown to market size in inland tanks. Analyse how these techniques protect and preserve biodiversity. (9 marks)

Show worked solution
(a) [3 marks]
Steps 1 to 4 build and clone the transgene by recombinant DNA technology. The desired sequences (the Chinook growth-hormone coding sequence and the Ocean Pout antifreeze promoter) are cut out and joined, using restriction enzymes and ligase, to make the transgene. This transgene is inserted into a bacterial plasmid (a vector), and the recombinant plasmid is taken up by bacteria. As the bacteria reproduce, they copy the plasmid and the transgene, producing many identical copies (gene cloning / amplification) ready to be introduced into salmon eggs.
(b) [3 marks]
A benefit is faster growth to market size, lowering production cost. The graph shows the transgenic salmon grow faster, especially in the first two years, and reach market size in about their second year, whereas standard salmon take roughly five months longer. Reaching market size sooner means fewer months of feeding and tank maintenance per fish, so feed and running costs fall and farms can produce more fish in the same time.
(c) [9 marks]
Biodiversity is the genetic variety within a species and the variety of species in an ecosystem. Transgenic salmon threaten it: if they escaped, their growth-hormone advantage could let them outcompete and reduce wild salmon (lowering species diversity), and interbreeding would spread the transgene and shrink the wild gene pool (lowering genetic diversity). The techniques are designed to prevent this.
  • Techniques 1 and 5 (quarantine and inland tanks) are physical isolation. Keeping breeding stock in quarantine and growing offspring in inland tanks stops transgenic fish escaping into wild waterways, so they cannot interbreed with or outcompete wild salmon. This directly protects wild populations and their biodiversity.
  • Technique 2 (hormone-induced sex reversal) turns genetically female (XX) fish into sperm producers. Because these fish are XX, all their sperm carry an X chromosome, never a Y, so the next generation cannot include males - a reproductive control that limits self-sustaining transgenic populations.
  • Technique 3 (fertilising wild-type eggs) crosses the transgenic sperm with eggs from wild-type salmon. Using wild-type eggs introduces fresh genetic variation, avoids inbreeding of the transgenic stock and gives hybrid vigour, which preserves variety within the farmed line.
  • Technique 4 (pressure shock, triploid XXX) blocks meiosis II to make triploid offspring. Triploid fish are sterile, so even if one escaped it could not breed and pass the transgene into wild populations. All offspring are female and XXX fish cannot develop sex organs, adding a further reproductive barrier.

Overall: physical isolation (1, 5), the all-female sperm and triploid sterility (2, 4) and the use of wild-type eggs (3) work together so the transgene cannot establish in the wild, protecting wild salmon diversity, while crossing with wild-type stock preserves genetic variety within the transgenic line. The combination makes escape into and breeding with wild populations extremely unlikely, safeguarding biodiversity at both the genetic and species levels.

Marker's note. In (a) explain (cause and effect) the recombinant steps and name the role of the plasmid and bacteria in cloning the gene. In (b) show cause and effect and quote comparative data from the graph (transgenic reaches market size about five months sooner). In (c) analyse each technique in turn, in a logical order, saying how it raises or lowers biodiversity, refer to both wild-type and transgenic populations, and address all five techniques rather than just stating they protect biodiversity.

General marker feedback

Stronger responses across the paper: read each question carefully to grasp its intent and requirements; planned the response so information was sequenced logically; integrated relevant scientific terms accurately; engaged with the stimulus material and referred to it directly in the answer; and in calculations showed all working with correct units.

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