HSC Biology 2020
Worked solutions to every question in the 2020 HSC Biology exam. Multiple-choice answers with a one-line reason, and a 'Show worked solution' model answer for each Section II question, aligned to the official NESA marking guidelines.
- Marks
- 100
- Time
- 180 min
- Authority
- NESA
- Updated
Every question from the 2020 HSC Biology exam, with a worked answer. Section II solutions are tucked behind a Show worked solution toggle, so you can attempt a question first and reveal the model answer when you are ready.
How to use this page
- Questions are from the 2020 HSC Biology exam, copyright NSW Education Standards Authority (NESA). Open the official PDF (button above) for the original stimulus diagrams and graphs.
- Answers are original model responses by ExamExplained (Claude Opus 4.8), written to the official marking guidelines, not copied from NESA's sample answers.
- Each Section II solution shows the mark split and a short Marker's note from the notes from the marking centre.
Structure and timing
100 marks in 180 minutes is about 1.8 minutes per mark.
- Section I (20 marks): 20 multiple-choice. Allow about 35 minutes.
- Section II (80 marks): Questions 21 to 32, short and extended response. Allow about 145 minutes, in proportion to the marks. Plan the larger answers (Questions 30 and 32) before you write.
Section I - Multiple choice
- Q1
- In maintaining homeostasis, which of the following is a behavioural adaptation? A. Sweating to cool down B. Curling up in a ball to keep warm C. Speeding up or slowing down cell metabolism D. Skin going red as more blood flows to surface
Answer: B - curling up is a change in behaviour; sweating, metabolism and blood flow are physiological responses. - Q2
- Sexual reproduction in plants involves? A. pollination by seed dispersal B. cloning C. mitosis forming pollen D. fertilisation by fusion of male and female gametes
Answer: D - sexual reproduction is defined by the fusion of gametes at fertilisation. - Q3
- Order of events in a placental mammal: fertilisation, implantation, ovulation, placental formation? A. 2,1,3,4 B. 2,4,1,3 C. 3,1,2,4 D. 3,2,4,1
Answer: C - ovulation, then fertilisation, then implantation, then the placenta forms. - Q4
- Malaria, caused by Plasmodium and spread by mosquitoes. Which is true? Answer: C - the mosquito is the vector and Plasmodium is the pathogen that causes the disease.
- Q5
- Which row describes DNA in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? Answer: B - prokaryotic DNA is circular and eukaryotic (nuclear) DNA is linear.
- Q6
- Most effective way to stop citrus canker spreading into Australia? Answer: C - holding incoming trees and fruit in quarantine through the incubation period catches infections before release.
- Q7
- Which row is a valid design for testing food samples for microbes? Answer: A - food sample is the independent variable, number of microbes the dependent, and a sample-free plate the control.
- Q8
- Quarantine is ineffective for non-infectious diseases because they? Answer: C - non-infectious diseases may be inherited and are not passed between people, so isolation cannot stop them.
- Q9
- Best way to measure the effectiveness of a skin-cancer campaign? Answer: C - comparing skin-cancer incidence before and after the campaign directly tests its aim.
- Q10
- Introducing a rare recessive allele via an outside bull is an example of? A. gene flow B. genetic drift C. natural selection D. selective breeding
Answer: A - new alleles entering a population from outside is gene flow. - Q11
- Eye model: which row correctly names a labelled part and its function? Answer: A - part I is the cornea, which refracts (bends) incoming light.
- Q12
- Purpose of cloning in agriculture? Answer: B - cloning preserves favourable traits by producing genetically identical offspring.
- Q13
- A diagram shows a human gene replicated in bacteria. What cloning is modelled? Answer: B - gene cloning, because a human gene is being copied (not a whole organism).
- Q14
- Heterozygotes have insufficient cholesterol receptors (between the two homozygotes). What inheritance? Answer: D - incomplete dominance, since the heterozygote phenotype is intermediate.
- Q15
- Which antiviral is safest and most effective at 1 micromol per litre? Answer: C - drug C gives high inhibition with low toxicity at that dose.
- Q16
- Adenine and guanine always total 50% of bases. What does this show? Answer: B - A pairs with T and G with C, so purines equal pyrimidines only in a double-stranded molecule.
- Q17
- Four SNPs do not affect phenotype. Best explanation? Answer: B - the SNPs lie in non-coding DNA that is not expressed, so they do not change the phenotype.
- Q18
- SNP genealogy pedigrees: which person is the likely suspect? Answer: D - person D shares SNPs with both unrelated individuals, placing them where the two family lines meet.
- Q19
- Which diagram models one phase of meiosis for an organism with six somatic chromosomes? Answer: A - the correct phase shows the right chromosome number and arrangement for meiosis.
- Q20
- Twin-correlation chart: how do genes and family environment affect traits A, B, C? Answer: A - the pattern of identical, biological and adoptive similarities matches high or low genetic and environmental influence per trait.
Section II - Short and extended response
Question 21 (3 marks)
Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae. Humans are infected when they consume food or water that is contaminated with the bacterium. Outline THREE strategies that could prevent the spread of cholera.
Show worked solution
[3 marks]. One strategy per mark, each linked to its effect on the bacterium:
- Treat and purify drinking water (e.g. chlorination or boiling) so the Vibrio cholerae bacteria in it are killed before anyone drinks it.
- Dispose of sewage safely and away from water supplies, so faeces carrying the bacteria do not contaminate the food and water people consume.
- Wash hands with soap after going to the toilet and before handling food, removing bacteria from the hands so they are not transferred to the mouth.
Marker's note. Give strategies specific to cholera, and link each to its purpose (boil the water to kill the bacterium, not just boil the water). Prevention, not treatment: vaccinating to build herd immunity prevents spread, whereas treating cases with antibiotics does not.
Question 22 (3 marks)
Outline a benefit and a limitation of using pharmaceuticals such as antibiotics to treat infectious disease.
Show worked solution
[3 marks]. Benefit: antibiotics treat bacterial infections by inhibiting bacterial growth or killing the bacteria (for example, stopping cell-wall synthesis), so the infection is cleared and the patient recovers.
Limitation: antibiotic resistance in bacteria is becoming increasingly common, so the bacteria survive treatment and the antibiotic loses its effectiveness against that disease. Antibiotics also do not work on viral infections.
Marker's note. Link the pharmaceutical to the correct pathogen (antibiotics treat bacteria, not viruses) and to the treatment of the disease. It is the bacteria that develop resistance, not the patient. Do not confuse antibiotics with antibodies.
Question 23 (3 marks)
The diagram shows a mutation: an original DNA sequence and a mutated sequence where one base has changed.
(a) What type of mutation is shown in the diagram? (1 mark)
(b) Outline another type of mutation. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [1 mark]. A point mutation (base substitution), where one base is replaced by another.
(b) [2 marks]. A chromosomal mutation affects part of or a whole chromosome rather than a single base. For example, a non-disjunction event changes the number of chromosomes in the genome, so the cell gains or loses a whole chromosome.
Marker's note. In (a) name the type (point or substitution mutation), do not just describe the diagram. In (b) outline a genuinely different type and link it to an effect; chromosomal mutations alter part or all of a chromosome, not a specific base sequence. Do not list germline or somatic, or name mutagens such as UV.
Question 24 (7 marks)
An indicator of kidney function is the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). A healthy adult has a GFR above 100 mL per minute; dialysis is needed below 15 mL per minute. A patient's GFR from 2011 to 2019 was: 81, 76, 77, 77, 79, 65, 60, 45, 35.
(a) Plot the data on the grid. (2 marks)
(b) Use the graph to show the year the patient is predicted to require dialysis. Show your working and answer on the graph. (2 marks)
(c) Explain how dialysis compensates for the loss of a function of the kidneys. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Plot year on the x-axis and GFR on the y-axis, label both axes (GFR in mL per minute), use an even scale that fills the grid, and plot the nine points accurately.
(b) [2 marks]. Draw a line of best fit through the points and extrapolate it forward to where GFR reaches 15 mL per minute. The recent decline (roughly 10 to 15 mL per minute each year after 2016) projects the line to cross 15 mL per minute at about 2021. Mark that crossing point and read the year off the x-axis.
(c) [3 marks]. A key function of the kidneys is to remove nitrogenous waste such as urea from the blood; losing kidney function lets urea build up to toxic levels. In dialysis, the patient's blood flows on one side of a selectively permeable membrane and dialysate fluid flows on the other. Because urea is at a high concentration in the blood and a low concentration in the dialysate, urea diffuses down its concentration gradient across the membrane out of the blood. This removes the waste the failing kidneys can no longer remove, compensating for the lost function.
Marker's note. In (a) and (b) use the full grid with an even scale, draw a line of best fit (not just dot-to-dot), extrapolate, and mark the predicted year on the graph itself. In (c) use precise terms (diffusion not osmosis, urea not ammonia) and relate the process to a real kidney function, rather than describing the social setting of dialysis.
Question 25 (7 marks)
Students tested the hypothesis that the number of eggs or young produced is greater in animals using external fertilisation than internal. Secondary-source data gave a mean of 43 plus or minus 55 (SD) for internal fertilisation and 40 plus or minus 32 (SD) for external fertilisation.
(a) What conclusion can be drawn from the data? Justify your answer. (3 marks)
(b) Justify an improvement to the students' experimental design to test the same hypothesis. (2 marks)
(c) Explain ONE advantage for animals of using external fertilisation. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
- (a) [3 marks]
- The data do not support the hypothesis; the conclusion is that there is no clear difference. The mean number of young is almost the same for internal (43) and external (40) fertilisation, a difference far smaller than the variation within each group. The standard deviations are very large (plus or minus 55 and plus or minus 32), so the ranges overlap heavily and the data are inconclusive. There is no evidence that external fertilisation produces more young.
- (b) [2 marks]
- Include many more species in each group. The students used only a handful of species, so a few high or low values (outliers) strongly skew each mean. Testing a much larger, randomly chosen sample of species reduces the effect of outliers and makes any real difference between the two modes easier to detect, improving the validity of the test of the hypothesis.
- (c) [2 marks]
- External fertilisation lets the animal release very large numbers of gametes at once, which can be fertilised together in the surrounding water. This produces many offspring in one event, so even though many are lost, enough survive to maintain the population. The parent also avoids the energy cost of internal gestation.
Marker's note. In (a) draw a clear conclusion and justify it with the means and the standard deviations, recognising the data are inconclusive. In (b) link the improvement to the hypothesis. In (c) give a feature of external fertilisation that is advantageous and link cause to effect on the species; do not confuse external fertilisation with asexual reproduction.
Question 26 (6 marks)
A fish colour gene has two alleles, yellow and orange. A pedigree chart shows inheritance of colour, with orange parents (I and II) producing some yellow offspring.
(a) Use the pedigree chart to explain why the yellow allele is recessive. (2 marks)
(b) Explain how a cross between individuals I and II could be used to determine whether the inheritance of colour in the fish is sex-linked or autosomal. (4 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Both parents are orange yet they produce yellow offspring. The yellow trait must have been present but hidden in both parents and only shows when an offspring inherits two yellow alleles, so yellow is recessive and orange is dominant.
(b) [4 marks]. Cross the orange parent I with the yellow parent II and look at the colours of male versus female offspring.
If colour is autosomal, parent II is yellow (genotype aa) and parent I is orange (AA or Aa). If I is Aa, then about half the offspring are yellow and half orange, with yellow and orange spread equally across both sexes.
If colour is sex-linked (on the X), parent I is the orange male X^A Y and parent II the yellow female X^a X^a. Then every son receives X^a from the mother and is yellow, while every daughter receives X^A from the father and is orange.
So if the yellow and orange offspring are split by sex (all yellow sons, all orange daughters), the inheritance is sex-linked; if the colours appear in both sexes equally, it is autosomal. Punnett squares for each case make the expected ratios clear.
Marker's note. In (a) use the pedigree to argue orange parents with yellow offspring means yellow is recessive, with correct terminology. In (b) explain the outcomes for both autosomal and sex-linked cases and relate the difference (a sex bias in colour) to the type of inheritance; Punnett squares and clear formats help.
Question 27 (6 marks)
An epidemiological study of 58 406 young adults over 11 years investigated mortality from chronic arsenic exposure in drinking water, controlling for age, sex, education and socioeconomic status. Graphs show survival (99.90 to 100%) for males and females at different exposure levels (below 90, 90 to 223, and above 223 micrograms per litre).
(a) Identify TWO features of the method used that contributed to the validity of this study. (2 marks)
(b) The hypothesis was that exposure to arsenic in drinking water increases mortality in young adults. Discuss the data presented in the graphs in relation to this hypothesis. (4 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Any two of: the very large sample size (58 406 people), which reduces the effect of chance; the long study period (11 years), which captures effects of chronic exposure; and controlling for confounding factors (age, sex, education and socioeconomic status) so differences in survival can be attributed to arsenic.
(b) [4 marks]. The data partly support the hypothesis. In both males and females, survival is highest in the group exposed to less than 90 micrograms per litre, and survival falls as average arsenic exposure rises, which suggests arsenic increases mortality. The dose-response is clearest in males, where each higher exposure band lowers survival; in females the two higher exposure bands give similar survival, hinting that other factors (such as nutrition or genetics) also act.
Against the hypothesis: although the sample is huge and survival declines progressively over the 11 years, the actual fall in survival is tiny, only about 0.1% or less, exaggerated by the narrow y-axis scale (99.90 to 100%). So the trend supports a link, but the effect size is very small.
Marker's note. In (a) take the features from the stimulus rather than speculating about controls not stated. In (b) discuss points for and against, using specific data trends and the misleading limited y-axis scale, and link them back to the hypothesis rather than just describing the graphs.
Question 28 (6 marks)
A student drew a model of part of meiosis, showing a homologous pair, crossing over, and recombinant and non-recombinant chromatids, with maternal and paternal chromatids coloured.
(a) Explain the misunderstanding of meiosis shown in this model. (3 marks)
(b) Explain the effect of meiosis on genetic variation. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [3 marks]. The homologous pair is drawn incorrectly. In a homologous pair one chromosome is maternal and the other paternal. Before crossing over, each chromosome has already replicated, so it consists of two identical sister chromatids; both chromatids of the maternal chromosome should be maternal, and both of the paternal chromosome paternal. The model wrongly shows a single chromosome made of one maternal and one paternal chromatid, confusing chromosomes with chromatids.
(b) [3 marks]. Meiosis increases genetic variation in several ways. In crossing over (prophase I), homologous chromosomes exchange segments, producing new combinations of alleles on each chromatid. In independent assortment, homologous pairs line up randomly at metaphase I and separate independently, so gametes receive many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes. These processes mean the gametes, and therefore the offspring, are genetically varied rather than identical to the parent.
Marker's note. In (a) explain that paired homologues are one maternal and one paternal, and that after replication a chromosome's two chromatids must be identical (both maternal or both paternal); distinguish chromosomes from chromatids. In (b) explain at least one process (crossing over, independent assortment) and link it to increased variation; do not blur independent assortment, random alignment and random segregation.
Question 29 (5 marks)
Explain how TWO processes that affect the gene pool of populations can lead to evolution.
Show worked solution
[5 marks]. A gene pool is the total set of alleles in a population. Evolution is a change in the gene pool (allele frequencies) over generations. Two processes that change it:
- Gene flow is the movement of alleles into or out of a population, for example when a migrant breeds with residents and adds new alleles, or when individuals leave. This alters allele frequencies and can introduce variation that natural selection then acts on.
- Genetic drift is a random change in allele frequencies, especially marked in a small population. By chance, some alleles are passed on more than others (for example after a population crash), so allele frequencies shift and some alleles may be lost, independent of any advantage.
Both processes change which alleles are present and how common they are. Acted on over many generations, often together with mutation and natural selection, these changes accumulate so the population evolves.
Marker's note. Describe the main features of two genuine mechanisms (mutation, gene flow, genetic drift) and relate the change in the gene pool to evolution. Note that meiosis and fertilisation shuffle existing alleles but do not add or remove them, and that evolution occurs over many generations, not in one.
Question 30 (7 marks)
Explain the impact that genetic technologies have had on the management of both infectious and non-infectious diseases.
Show worked solution
- [7 marks]
- Two genetic technologies, applied to both disease types:
- Recombinant DNA technology (non-infectious disease, e.g. diabetes)
- Type 1 diabetes is a non-infectious disease in which the pancreas no longer makes insulin. A human insulin gene is inserted into bacteria, which then transcribe and translate it to mass-produce human insulin. Diabetic patients inject this insulin to control their blood glucose, so the disease is managed and life-threatening complications are avoided.
- Recombinant DNA technology (infectious disease, e.g. recombinant vaccines)
- For an infectious disease such as hepatitis B, the gene for a viral surface protein (antigen) is inserted into yeast, which produce that antigen. The harmless antigen is used as a vaccine: it triggers active immunity and memory cells, so vaccinated people are protected and the spread of the pathogen through the population falls. (Bt crops engineered to resist insect pests, reducing crop disease, are another acceptable infectious-disease example.)
- Overall impact
- At the genetic level these technologies move a chosen gene into a host cell that then expresses the desired protein. This has transformed disease management, providing reliable supplies of treatments (insulin) and safe, specific vaccines, improving both the treatment of non-infectious disease and the prevention of infectious disease.
Marker's note. Be specific: outline two genuine genetic technologies and what happens at the genetic level, then link each to its impact on managing infectious and non-infectious disease. Distinguish a genetic technology from a generic biotechnology, and avoid grouping diseases or technologies with vague statements.
Question 31 (9 marks)
Plasma glucose, insulin and glucagon were measured in 24 healthy adults over 5 hours; after 1 hour at rest they ate a large carbohydrate meal (Figures 1 to 3).
(a) Use the data provided to explain how blood glucose is controlled in the body. (6 marks)
(b) Outline how, in humans, maintenance of temperature is different to the way that glucose is controlled. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [6 marks]. Blood glucose is kept within narrow limits by negative feedback involving the pancreas and liver.
In the first hour (at rest) glucose, insulin and glucagon sit at steady resting levels. After the carbohydrate meal, glucose is absorbed from the gut and plasma glucose rises (Figure 1). The rising glucose stimulates the beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin, which is why insulin rises just after glucose (Figure 2). Insulin makes body cells take up glucose for metabolism and makes the liver store glucose as glycogen. As glucose is taken out of the blood, plasma glucose falls back toward resting level; the falling glucose removes the stimulus, so insulin also falls. This is negative feedback.
When glucose drops, the alpha cells of the pancreas release glucagon (Figure 3), which makes the liver break glycogen down to glucose and release it into the blood, raising glucose again. So glucagon falls while glucose is high and rises as glucose falls. The opposing actions of insulin and glucagon hold blood glucose around its set point.
(b) [3 marks]. Temperature change is detected by the hypothalamus in the brain, whereas glucose change is detected directly by the pancreas. The temperature response is coordinated largely through the nervous system (for example triggering shivering or sweating), while glucose is regulated through hormones (insulin and glucagon) in the bloodstream. So the two differ in both the control centre and the type of message used to respond.
Marker's note. In (a) refer to features of all three graphs and show detailed understanding of the roles of insulin, glucagon, glycogen, the alpha and beta cells, the pancreas and the liver in negative feedback. In (b) give clear differences, linking each component of glucose control to its equivalent in temperature control (control centre, body system, type of message).
Question 32 (18 marks)
Rabies affects all mammals, is caused by the rabies virus, and is transmitted by the bite of an infected animal. A flow chart shows the virus entering tissue from saliva, replicating in muscle, moving up peripheral nerves to the central nervous system and brain, and entering the salivary glands.
(a) Use the information provided to identify TWO features of the rabies infection that facilitate transmission of the pathogen to a new host. (2 marks)
(b) The rabies virus is a single-stranded RNA virus coding for only five proteins. Diagram 1 shows its structure (including the L and P RNA polymerase, the negative-strand RNA genome and a lipid bilayer); Diagram 2 shows its reproduction.
(i) Use the information in Diagram 1 to explain why the rabies virus cannot be classified as a cellular pathogen. (3 marks)
(ii) Use the information in Diagrams 1 and 2 to explain the role of viral RNA polymerase in the reproduction of the virus. (5 marks)
(c) Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is given after a bite: an injection of human rabies antibodies (HRIG) plus rabies vaccine at 0, 3, 7 and 14 days. Graphs show the response without and with PEP. Explain how PEP prevents rabies developing after infection with the virus, with reference to the information and data provided throughout Question 32. (8 marks)
Show worked solution
- (a) [2 marks]
- Two features from the flow chart: the virus travels up the nerves to reach the salivary glands of the host, so infectious virus collects in the saliva; and the host then bites another animal, injecting that saliva through the skin, giving direct contact transmission to a new host.
- (b)(i) [3 marks]
- A cellular pathogen (such as a bacterium) is a complete cell with its own cytoplasm, ribosomes and machinery, and usually a large DNA genome, so it can carry out its own life processes. Diagram 1 shows the rabies virus is only a small particle: a short single-stranded RNA genome with a few proteins and a lipid bilayer, and no cytoplasm, ribosomes or cell membrane. Because it lacks the cellular structures needed to carry out its own metabolism and reproduction, and must use a host cell to reproduce, it cannot be classified as a cellular pathogen.
- (b)(ii) [5 marks]
- The viral RNA polymerase is made of the L and P proteins shown in Diagram 1, and it has two roles in reproduction (Diagram 2).
First, transcription: the RNA polymerase uses the viral RNA genome as a template to make complementary mRNA strands. Host-cell ribosomes then translate these mRNAs into the five viral proteins (G, M, N, P and L), including more L and P proteins.
Second, replication of the genome: the same RNA polymerase copies the viral RNA into a full-length complementary strand, which is then used as a template to make new copies of the original viral RNA genome for the offspring viruses.
The link between the two is that the newly translated L and P proteins are themselves more RNA polymerase, so the proteins made in transcription and translation go on to catalyse the genome replication. Thus RNA polymerase produces both the proteins and the RNA genomes needed to assemble new virus particles.
(c) [8 marks]. Without PEP, the rabies virus replicates at the bite site, then travels along the nerves to the central nervous system (the graphs show it reaching the CNS around day 7), causing fatal encephalitis. The patient has no memory cells for rabies, so their own antibody response (which only begins around day 7) is too slow to stop the virus before it reaches the CNS.
PEP works in two complementary ways shown in the data.
- Passive immunity (HRIG): the injected human rabies antibodies act immediately. They bind to and inactivate (neutralise) the virus at the entry site and flag it for destruction by phagocytes, lowering the virus concentration in the first days (the with-PEP graph shows virus falling around days 6 to 8). This buys time but is short-lived, lasting only about three weeks.
- Active immunity (vaccine): the vaccine contains inactivated, harmless rabies virus. Macrophages present its antigen to helper T cells, which activate specific B cells; these divide into plasma cells that secrete rabies-specific antibodies and into memory B cells. The graph shows the patient's own antibodies rising sharply from about day 7 and reaching a maximum near day 21.
As the vaccine-induced antibodies take over from the fading HRIG, virus at the entry site is neutralised before it can reach the CNS, so by about day 11 no virus remains and rabies (and death) is prevented. The two parts of PEP overlap in time: the HRIG controls the virus early while the vaccine builds lasting protection.
Marker's note. In (a) draw the features from the stimulus (bite essential for transmission; virus reaching the salivary glands). In (b)(i) use structural features (single-stranded RNA, no cell machinery) rather than processes. In (b)(ii) use the diagrams to show RNA polymerase drives both transcription/translation and RNA replication, and that the new L and P proteins are themselves polymerase. In (c) use both graphs and your own knowledge to explain passive (HRIG) and active (vaccine) immunity and the role of antibodies, rather than just describing the graphs.
General marker feedback
Stronger responses across the paper: read each question carefully so no part was missed; understood the key command words and the intent of the question; planned extended responses for a logical sequence; integrated relevant scientific terms; engaged with the stimulus material and referred to it directly; showed all working with correct units in calculations; and answered succinctly while addressing every requirement of the question.
Use this paper well
- Sit the paper under exam conditions (180 minutes, 100 marks).
- Mark yourself against the official NESA marking notes.
- Compare against the Biology hub to find the syllabus dot points this paper tested.
