VCE Psychology 2021

Every question from the 2021 VCE Psychology examination, set on the previous study design (Units 3 and 4 from 2017). Multiple-choice answers come with a short reason; Section B model answers sit behind a Show worked solution toggle. Questions on topics that have since left the course are flagged, so you know what to skip or adapt.

How to use this page

• Questions are from the 2021 VCE Psychology examination, copyright Victorian Curriculum and Assessment Authority (VCAA). Each is summarised briefly here; open the official examination PDF for the full wording, data and diagrams.
• Answers are original ExamExplained model answers. Every multiple-choice answer matches the key in the 2021 Psychology external assessment report (Word document), and every Section B answer was checked against the points the report accepted. Both files are listed on the VCAA Psychology examinations page.
• Percentages after multiple-choice answers are the share of students who chose the correct option. In Section B, "From the report" notes summarise what the examiners said students got wrong.
• Psychology answers are marked on the points made, so the model answers below are written as one clear point per mark and tied to the scenario. Other correct points were also accepted; the report lists them.

Which questions still apply

The VCAA report says this paper was based on the VCE Psychology study design for 2017 to 2022. The current study design has been in use since 2023, and its Units 3 and 4 differ in places: sources of stress, attention and consciousness, parasomnias, theories of sleep, risk factors for mental disorders, Parkinson's disease and the transtheoretical model have all left Units 3 and 4, while the gut-brain axis, Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander ways of knowing and social and emotional wellbeing have been added.

• Outside the current Units 3 and 4: Section A Questions 1 (myelin), 4 (sources of stress), 7 (eustress and distress), 20 and 22 (context-dependent cues and leading questions), 25 and 26 (states of consciousness and attention, now Unit 2 for attention), 32 (the restorative theory and REM rebound), 36 (parasomnias), 43, 45 and 47 (risk factors and cumulative risk for mental disorders) and 49 and 50 (the transtheoretical model); Section B Questions 2cii (spontaneous recovery), 3a (Parkinson's disease) and 6bi (rumination as a risk factor).
• Partly outside: Section A Questions 2, 8, 9, 13, 27, 31, 33, 38, 40, 42 and 44, and Section B Questions 4e and 6a. The notes on each question say what still applies.
• Everything else (the nervous system and spinal reflexes, the GAS and the Transactional Model, coping, classical, operant and observational learning, the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, sleep and its measurement, sleep deprivation and BAC, bright light therapy, the mental health continuum, specific phobia and its treatments, and the research methods and ethics questions) is still examinable and good practice.

Structure and timing

The paper is 120 marks in 150 minutes (plus 15 minutes reading time). That is 1.25 minutes per mark. The layout differs from the exams set since 2023.

• Section A (50 marks): 50 multiple-choice questions, many in scenario sets. Aim for about 55 minutes.
• Section B (70 marks): 7 questions, from 7 to 13 marks, ending with a 10-mark extended response (Question 7) analysing a study of dental phobia treatments. Leave at least 15 minutes for it.

Section A: Multiple choice

Q1

The absence of the myelin sheath would lead to Answer: C - interference with the speed of neural transmission. Myelin insulates the axon and speeds up impulses; without it, messages still travel but more slowly. (81%) Study design: outside the current course, which no longer covers neuron structure.

Q2

A role of a dendrite and of an axon terminal. Answer: D - dendrites receive information from pre-synaptic neurons; axon terminals release neurotransmitters into the synapse. (72%; 19% chose B.) Study design: partly outside; transmission across the synapse is still in Unit 3, but the parts of a neuron are no longer named.

Q3

Vikki wakes to scratching at the window and is too frightened to move. Vikki is likely experiencing Answer: A - an inability to move due to parasympathetic dominance. The freeze response comes with a slowing heart rate, so B (a raised heart rate) does not fit, and D wrongly puts fight-flight-freeze under the somatic nervous system. (24%; 43% chose B.)

Q4

Monty is overwhelmed as he marries Peta, moves in with her and pays for the wedding. The source of his stress, and why? Answer: A - a life event, because marriage is an important event. (72%) Study design: outside the current course, which describes stressors as internal or external rather than as life events, daily pressures or acculturative stress.

Q5

Dakota's new surfboard arrives damaged and cannot be replaced before a competition. A possible secondary appraisal? Answer: B - that she could cope with the delay by using her existing surfboard. Secondary appraisal weighs up coping resources and options, and B does this using a resource she already has; A and C are feelings about the loss rather than an assessment of how to cope. (64%; 25% chose D.)

Q6

An effective approach coping strategy for Dakota. Answer: A - researching other shops to find a replacement board, which tackles the stressor directly. The others avoid or vent about it. (88%)

Q7

Which is true of eustress and distress? Answer: D - eustress increases physiological arousal because of a positive response to a stressor; distress decreases energy over an extended period of time. (84%) Study design: outside the current course (eustress and distress are not named).

Q8

Ava, 16, changes schools with every family move, finds each move harder and makes little effort to adjust at her latest school. Ava is demonstrating Answer: B - difficulty adapting to a new environment. Leaving and forming friendship groups is not one of the main sources of acculturative stress, so D does not fit. (46%; 36% chose D.) Study design: partly outside; coping flexibility and context-specific effectiveness are still in, but acculturative stress is not.

Q9

To use counterbalancing, a researcher must Answer: A - alternate the order in which participants are exposed to the conditions of the independent variable, so order effects are spread evenly. (58%; 20% chose D.) Study design: partly outside; within-subjects designs are still in the key science skills, but counterbalancing is not named.

Q10

A difference between classical and operant conditioning. Answer: D - in classical conditioning the stimulus directly produces the response; in operant conditioning the antecedent does not directly produce the response, it only signals that a consequence is likely. (57%; 19% chose B.)

Q11

William, five, adores his brother Sam, seven, who has just learnt to skateboard. Which stage of observational learning makes William likely to learn too? Answer: A - attention, because William idolises his brother, so he watches him closely. (69%; 17% chose C.)

Q12

For Sam, learning to ride a skateboard Answer: A - developed neural changes in his cerebellum, which is involved in implicit memories of motor skills. (71%)

Q13

The "Little Albert" experiment demonstrated Answer: C - how conditioning can be used to form an emotional response. (86%) Study design: partly outside; the study is no longer named, but classical conditioning of a fear response is still in the course (it precipitates specific phobia).

Q14

Justin hears a phone number on the radio. With no rehearsal, how long will it stay in short-term memory? Answer: C - 15 to 30 seconds. (58%; 26% chose B.)

Q15

The method most likely to transfer the number to long-term memory, and why. Answer: A - repeating it out loud, since repeated auditory exposure (rehearsal) helps the transfer. (62%; 26% chose C.)

Q16

In the Atkinson-Shiffrin model, retrieving the number from long-term memory means it is Answer: B - moved from long-term memory into short-term memory, where it can be used. (70%)

Q17

A hypothesis Answer: C - is generated from scientific knowledge or experience in order to understand and test ideas. It predicts how the independent variable affects the dependent variable (not the reverse, B), and it is not a research method (D). (43%; 35% chose B.)

Q18

Jonas hears an eight-item shopping list on the phone, keeps talking to his father, and writes it down 30 seconds later. The likely outcome? Answer: A - he remembers only the first few items: rehearsal moved them into long-term memory, while the rest were lost from short-term memory once 30 seconds had passed. (39%; 44% chose C.)

Q19

Tracy's audition for the lead role is successful. Her initial reaction, in Lazarus and Folkman's model? Answer: B - she sees it as an opportunity to begin her acting career: a primary appraisal of challenge. A and C concern resources and coping (secondary appraisal). (81%)

Q20

Tracy learns her lines late at night while drinking coffee, forgets them on stage, then recalls them when she smells coffee in a café. For her, coffee Answer: C - has become a context-dependent cue: the smell was part of the environment when she encoded the lines. (73%; 26% chose B.) Study design: outside the current course (context-dependent and state-dependent cues are not named).

Q21

Dr Dhanial asked students how often they ate chocolate "frequently" (Group A, estimate 4.1 a week) or "occasionally" (Group B, 0.8 a week). The independent variable was Answer: B - the wording of the question. (85%)

Q22

A week later, which finding would show the leading question had altered memories? Answer: C - Group B (occasionally) was more likely to report eating less chocolate than Group A. (61%; 30% chose D.) Study design: outside the current course (leading questions and the reconstruction of memory are not named).

Q23

A criticism of the study. Answer: D - all participants came from one source (university students), so the results may not generalise to the wider population. (75%; 17% chose A.)

Q24

In a later study with a control group, the control participants were likely Answer: C - asked only to estimate how often they ate chocolate per week, with no leading word. (71%)

Q25

Orla, absorbed in a video game and talking with Anthony, does not notice time passing. She is closer to Answer: B - normal waking consciousness with high levels of awareness. Consciousness is a continuum, and focused attention in a game is still normal waking consciousness even when time seems to pass quickly. (17%; 47% chose D, 33% chose A.) Study design: outside the current course, which covers altered states of consciousness only through sleep.

Q26

Orla does not notice Anthony leave to get a drink. This is most likely Answer: B - selective attention, which narrows what she is aware of. (90%) Study design: outside the current Units 3 and 4 (attention is now Unit 2).

Q27

Roles of glutamate and adrenaline as Orla learns the game. Answer: A - glutamate makes post-synaptic neurons more likely to fire; adrenaline, released in her excitement, helps activate the amygdala. (68%; 17% chose C.) Study design: partly outside; glutamate is still in Unit 3, but adrenaline's role in memory is not.

Q28

The more Orla practises, the better she gets, explained by Answer: C - long-term potentiation, which increases synaptic communication when she presses the buttons. (91%)

Q29

Orla finds it hard to stop playing. Which conditioning, and why? Answer: A - operant: progressing to higher levels than Anthony reinforces playing, so she keeps doing it. Stopping is a voluntary behaviour; feeling excited when invited (B) is a classical conditioning idea. (31%; 35% chose D.)

Q30

An objective measure for studying treatments for sleep disturbances. Answer: B - a video monitor recording the time and length of awakenings. An EMG records muscle activity, not brain waves (A), and C and D are self-reports. (46%; 39% chose A.)

Q31

Charini, 15, cannot fall asleep before 11 pm and struggles to stay awake at school. Her sleep problem is Answer: A - a sleep-wake shift, with melatonin secretion peaking later in the day, which delays her sleep onset. (63%; 26% chose D.) Study design: partly outside; the current course covers sleep across the life span and Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome, but "sleep-wake shift" is no longer named.

Q32

After several nights of reduced sleep, the restorative theory predicts Charini will Answer: B - spend more time than usual in REM sleep (REM rebound). (58%; 31% chose C.) Study design: outside the current course (theories of sleep and REM rebound are not named).

Q33

After caffeine, a stimulant, Charini's brain waves show an increase in Answer: B - beta waves and a decrease in alpha waves, since she becomes more alert. (61%; 22% chose D.) Study design: partly outside; EEG is still in the course, but the effects of stimulants are not.

Q34

Charini's doctor would recommend using the bright light therapy box Answer: C - early in the morning, to advance her circadian rhythm. Morning light brings melatonin release forward, so she feels sleepy earlier. (62%; 22% chose B.)

Q35

A graph of normal melatonin production, low through the day and peaking in the early hours. The rhythm is Answer: C - circadian, because melatonin peaks during the night and returns to its normal level during the day. Ultradian rhythms are shorter than 24 hours. (69%)

Q36

Sakura, 16, is often found standing in her bedroom at night, must be guided back to bed, and is not sleepy during the day. She is most likely experiencing Answer: D - a parasomnia, because there is physiological activity during sleep and she needs to be guided back to bed. (92%) Study design: outside the current course (parasomnias and dyssomnias are not named; only circadian rhythm sleep disorders remain).

Q37

Professor Dominique's escape-room study: experimental groups get a 30-minute presentation on coping first, control groups go straight in. A design feature that could bias the findings? Answer: C - inconsistent procedures between conditions: only one group spent 30 minutes on a presentation before the escape room. Nothing in the scenario shows the sample was not random (D). (13%; 35% chose A, 30% chose D.)

Q38

The design and sampling. Answer: C - independent groups with convenience sampling (the university community). (78%) Study design: partly outside; between-subjects (independent groups) designs are still in, but the key science skills now name only random and stratified sampling.

Q39

What did the professor fail to consider? Answer: D - withdrawal rights: participants are told they will be locked in until they solve the puzzles or an hour passes. Consent and debriefing are both planned. (85%)

Q40

The recording for someone under the influence of a depressant. Answer: A - an EEG showing more alpha and theta waves, indicating slowed functioning. (76%; 13% chose B.) Study design: partly outside; the EEG, EMG and EOG are still in, but the effects of depressants are not.

Q41

A strength of representing mental health on a continuum, and of the biopsychosocial model. Answer: D - a continuum allows early signs of mental health problems to be identified; the biopsychosocial model emphasises biological, psychological and social factors interacting together. (50%; 29% chose C.)

Q42

Informed consent when researching children and adults with a mental disorder. Answer: B - deception can be used with children if a parent or guardian has consented; a placebo may be used with informed consent even though it withholds treatment. Many adults with a mental disorder can give consent (A is wrong), and research with children always needs consent (C, D). (45%; 45% chose A.) Study design: partly outside; informed consent and deception are still in the ethical guidelines, but the use of placebos is not named.

Q43

Disorganised attachment can contribute to a mental disorder because it is a Answer: C - social risk factor that leads to an inability to seek help and support. (53%; 30% chose D.) Study design: outside the current course (risk factors for mental disorders, including attachment, are not named).

Q44

A difference between risk and protective factors. Answer: A - a catastrophic event can be a risk factor but is unlikely to be a protective factor. Genetics and coping strategies can be either (B, C), and D reverses the definitions. (52%; 41% chose C.) Study design: partly outside; protective factors are still in Unit 4, but risk factors for mental disorders in general are not.

Q45

Ekon rates himself from 1 to 10 against five risk factors before joining an emergency volunteer group. The questionnaire is Answer: B - using the concept of cumulative risk to predict mental health outcomes. (53%; 32% chose A.) Study design: outside the current course (cumulative risk is not named).

Q46

The research method used. Answer: B - self-report with quantitative data (numerical ratings). (58%; 40% chose C.)

Q47

Biological and psychological risk factors for a mental disorder. Answer: B - biological: poor sleep and family members with a similar disorder; psychological: rumination (continually thinking the same thoughts) and high stress. (63%; 22% chose D.) Study design: outside the current course (risk factors for mental disorders are not named).

Q48

Harper, in a new job, feels she is not coping, feels fearful getting ready for work, and has tension headaches, high blood pressure and lost sleep from worry. She is likely experiencing Answer: A - both stress and anxiety, as her symptoms are persistent and maladaptive. (58%; 27% chose C.)

Q49

Harper decides to exercise daily. In the preparation stage of the transtheoretical model, she Answer: D - has taken some steps by exercising more often but lacks confidence. Options A and C describe the action stage and B describes precontemplation. (35%; 28% chose C, 27% chose A.) Study design: outside the current course (the transtheoretical model is not in it).

Q50

After a week of regular exercise, Harper relapses. Which is true? Answer: B - she decides exercise is not for her and stops altogether. Having exercised for a week, she is in the action stage; a relapse has no planned return, while C (planning to start again next week) describes a lapse. (12%; 42% chose C, 29% chose A.) Study design: outside the current course.

Section B

Question 1 (8 marks)

Bob works in a highly competitive, demanding advertising company. When he started, he was surprised by the extra daily tasks. After many months he started getting headaches and frequently catching colds.

a.i

On the axes provided (resistance level to stress against continuous stress), draw how a person typically reacts to a stressor according to Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome. (1 mark)

a.ii

Label the three stages in the boxes. (1 mark)

b

Which stage was Bob in when he started frequently catching colds? Justify. (3 marks)

c

After many years in this job, Bob was diagnosed with a heart condition that needed surgery. Explain which stage he was experiencing. (3 marks)

Show worked solution

a.i. [1 mark] and a.ii. [1 mark]. The line starts at the normal level, dips below normal (shock), then rises above normal (countershock), stays above normal through resistance, and finally falls below normal, lower than the first dip, in exhaustion.

For a.ii, all three names are needed: alarm reaction, resistance, exhaustion.

b. [3 marks]. Bob was in the resistance stage. His workplace stress has continued for many months, so his body keeps releasing cortisol over a long period to keep his resistance above normal and deal with the demands. Prolonged cortisol suppresses the immune system, so he became more vulnerable to colds, while still coping with his job.

c. [3 marks]. Bob was in the exhaustion stage. After years of stress, his body's resources were depleted, because his systems had been working at a raised level for so long, and his resistance to stress fell below normal. His heart had been working at an elevated rate (higher heart rate and blood pressure) the whole time, and this wear and tear weakened and damaged it, leading to a heart condition serious enough to need surgery.

From the report. In a.i, many graphs did not start on the normal line or did not rise above normal before the resistance stage. In a.ii, "Stage 1, 2, 3" did not score. In b, exhaustion was a common wrong answer: Bob was still functioning and a cold is not a serious illness; full marks needed the ongoing release of cortisol, not just cortisol. In c, answers had to link the stage to Bob's heart condition.

Question 2 (13 marks)

Matilda walks her new dog, Biscuit, along the same route every day, and children often stop to pat him.

a

Identify which subdivision of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for the movement to pat Biscuit, and explain the sequence of biological processes. (5 marks)

b

Matilda touches a sharp thorn and quickly pulls her hand away. Identify the biological process involved and outline its role in her response. (2 marks)

c

On the walk they pass a house where a dog barks, and Biscuit gets excited and barks back. After many months, Biscuit gets excited and barks as they near the house, before he hears or sees the dog.

c.i

Using the language of classical conditioning, outline the three-phase process by which Biscuit learnt this. (3 marks)

c.ii

The family with the dog moves away and Biscuit eventually stops reacting. After a few weeks on a different route because of roadworks, they return, and Biscuit gets excited and barks at the house again. Name and describe the process. (3 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [5 marks].

• The somatic nervous system is responsible, because patting is a voluntary, conscious movement of skeletal muscles.
• Sensory neurons (for example, from receptors in a child's eyes seeing Biscuit) carry the sensory information to the brain via the spinal cord.
• The brain processes the information and makes a conscious decision to pat the dog.
• Motor neurons carry the message from the brain, via the spinal cord, to the skeletal muscles in the child's arm and hand.
• The muscles contract to pat Biscuit, and sensory neurons in the hand then send the feel of his fur back to the brain.

b. [2 marks]. A spinal reflex. Its role is to move Matilda's hand away from the thorn very quickly, initiated by the spinal cord before the brain is involved, to protect her hand from injury (a survival response).

c.i. [3 marks].

• Before conditioning: the sight of the house (neutral stimulus, NS) produces no excitement or barking. The dog barking (unconditioned stimulus, UCS) naturally produces excitement and barking (unconditioned response, UCR).
• During conditioning: on the daily walks, the sight of the house (NS) is repeatedly presented just before the dog barking (UCS), which produces the UCR of excitement and barking.
• After conditioning: the sight of the house alone (now the conditioned stimulus, CS) produces excitement and barking (the conditioned response, CR), before Biscuit hears or sees the dog.

c.ii. [3 marks]. Name: spontaneous recovery. Once the dog moved away, the house (CS) was repeatedly met without the barking (UCS), so the CR faded: extinction. After a rest period (the weeks on a different route), the extinguished CR reappeared when Biscuit was exposed to the CS again: he got excited and barked at the house.

Study design: part c.ii is outside the current course, which covers classical conditioning as a three-phase process and no longer names extinction or spontaneous recovery. Parts a, b and c.i are still examinable.

From the report. In a, many answers did not make the brain's role in this conscious response clear. In b, the question asked for the role of the reflex (protecting Matilda), not the steps of the reflex arc. In c.i, all five terms (NS, UCS, UCR, CS, CR) were needed, with the NS repeatedly presented before the UCS. In c.ii, naming only extinction was a common error.

Question 3 (12 marks)

A news article (by F Marrow) reports a study of 284 newly diagnosed Parkinson's disease patients, exploring whether gender changes the effect of caffeine on tremor severity. The patients were interviewed about their motor and non-motor symptoms and their caffeine consumption history. 204 were caffeine drinkers (three or more cups a day of coffee, tea or energy drinks) and 80 were non-caffeine drinkers (0 cups a day). Compared with non-caffeine drinkers, caffeine drinkers had an early onset of symptoms, were younger, had fewer motor and non-motor symptoms and had lower resting tremor scores. The link between caffeine and tremor severity was significant only in males.

a

Explain the biological features of Parkinson's disease and their progression. (3 marks)

b

Write an operationalised independent variable for this study. (2 marks)

c

Identify one extraneous variable in this study, outline how it might have affected the results and how it could have been controlled. (3 marks)

d

Identify one factor the researchers should consider when generalising their findings, and outline how it affects generalisability. (2 marks)

e

Why would the researchers have studied the population that they did? (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [3 marks]

Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disease: the dopamine-producing neurons of the substantia nigra progressively die. With less dopamine, the messages that control voluntary movement are disrupted, causing motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity and slowed movement. As more neurons are lost over time, dopamine falls further and the symptoms, including non-motor symptoms, become more severe.

b. [2 marks]

Whether patients drank three or more caffeinated drinks (coffee, tea or energy drinks) per day, or no caffeinated drinks (0 cups) per day. (An operationalised independent variable based on the caffeine consumption of males and females was also accepted, as long as both groups and the amounts were given.)

c. [3 marks]

Age: the caffeine drinkers were younger. Younger patients may have had fewer symptoms and milder tremors because of their age rather than their caffeine intake. This could be controlled by matching the groups on age (or sampling so that ages are evenly spread across the groups). (The varying amount of caffeine in different drinks, or symptoms being self-reported in interviews, were also accepted.)

d. [2 marks]

Whether the sample is representative of the population. The participants were all newly diagnosed, so they may not represent everyone with Parkinson's disease, such as people in later stages; if the sample is not representative, the findings cannot be generalised to all people with the disease.

e. [2 marks]

The population was newly diagnosed Parkinson's disease patients. Their aim was to see whether caffeine (and gender) affects the severity of tremors early in the disease, in people who were less likely to have had other treatments that could also affect their symptoms.

Study design: part a is outside the current Units 3 and 4, which no longer include Parkinson's disease (the current course names it nowhere; neurological disorders in general are Unit 1). Parts b to e (variables, extraneous variables, generalisation and populations) are still examinable.

From the report. In a, some answers confused Parkinson's with Alzheimer's disease or gave too little detail on dopamine or cell death. In b (24% full marks), the variable had to be operationalised, with the amount of caffeine and both groups given. In c, many did not say how to control the variable, and the unequal group sizes were not accepted as an extraneous variable. In e, answers had to refer to the population, not the sample.

Question 4 (12 marks)

For her practical investigation, Maria tested parents from her school community with infants aged three to six months. She calculated how long they had been awake and tested them on visual-spatial reasoning. A line graph shows percentage error (speed and accuracy combined) rising from about 5% at 11 hours since last sleep to about 20% at 20 hours and about 40% at 24 hours.

a

Interpret the results shown in the graph. (2 marks)

b

Another group of new parents will not be sleep deprived but will have increasing blood alcohol concentration (BAC). How might their results at 0.05% and 0.10% compare with the sleep-deprived participants? (2 marks)

c

Suggest one measure of affective functioning Maria could use to compare sleep-deprived and non-sleep-deprived participants, and predict the likely results. (2 marks)

d

Identify four ways in which sleep differs between infants and healthy adults. (4 marks)

e

With reference to the restoration theory of sleep, why do sleep patterns differ between infants and healthy adults? (2 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [2 marks]

As the number of hours since last sleep increased (from 11 to 24 hours), the parents' percentage error on the visual-spatial reasoning test increased, from about 5% to about 40%. The errors rose most steeply after about 20 hours awake.

b. [2 marks]

At a BAC of 0.05%, their performance would be similar to that of parents who had been awake for about 17 hours (roughly 13 to 14% error on the graph). At a BAC of 0.10%, it would be similar to parents awake for about 24 hours (about 40% error).

c. [2 marks]

Measure: a self-report rating scale (for example, a Likert scale) of how irritable the parents feel. Likely results: sleep-deprived parents would rate themselves as more irritable (with more amplified emotions) than parents who were not sleep deprived.

d. [4 marks]

Each difference is a comparison:

• Total sleep: infants sleep far longer (about 14 hours a day) than adults (about 8 hours).
• REM proportion: about 50% of an infant's sleep is REM, compared with about 20% for adults.
• Pattern across the day: infants sleep in several short blocks through the day and night and wake often, whereas adults sleep in one main block.
• Sleep onset: infants can enter REM sleep as soon as they fall asleep, whereas adults enter NREM sleep first.

e. [2 marks]. The restoration theory says sleep gives the body and brain time to recover, repair and grow, with REM sleep linked to brain development. Infants' brains are developing rapidly, forming many new neural connections, so they need more REM sleep (and more sleep in total) than adults, whose brains and bodies are no longer growing as quickly.

Study design: parts a to d are still examinable (sleep deprivation compared with BAC, affective functioning and sleep across the life span are all in Unit 4). Part e is partly outside: the current course asks for explanations of the demand for sleep across the life span, but no longer names the restoration theory.

From the report. In a, "percentage error" alone did not identify the dependent variable. In b, some students misplaced the decimal point (writing 0.5 for 0.05). In d, each point had to compare infants with adults, and repeating the same difference did not score twice. In e, many described the difference without linking it to the restoration theory.

Question 5 (7 marks)

Achara tells her son Kris that as a child he cried for chocolates every time they visited the supermarket. She stopped him crying by ignoring it and carrying on with her shopping.

a

According to operant conditioning, what were the antecedent, behaviour and consequence for Achara? (3 marks)

b

What type of consequence for Achara is demonstrated? (1 mark)

c

With reference to operant conditioning, describe another way Achara could have stopped Kris from crying. (3 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [3 marks]. From Achara's point of view:

• Antecedent: Kris cries for chocolates at the supermarket.
• Behaviour: Achara ignores his crying and keeps shopping.
• Consequence: Kris stops crying, so Achara can shop in peace.

b. [1 mark]. Negative reinforcement: an unpleasant stimulus (Kris's crying) is removed, which strengthens Achara's behaviour of ignoring it.

c. [3 marks]. Achara could use response cost (negative punishment): each time Kris cries for chocolate, she takes away something he enjoys, such as time with his favourite toy that afternoon. Removing a pleasant stimulus straight after the crying makes him less likely to cry for chocolate in future. (Positive reinforcement of not crying, such as praise or a sticker when he shops without crying, was another option.)

From the report. In a, the most common error was answering from Kris's point of view instead of Achara's. In b, only negative reinforcement was accepted. In c, many suggested another consequence without using operant conditioning terms, or gave another example of negative reinforcement; full marks also needed the effect on Kris's future behaviour.

Question 6 (8 marks)

a

Identify one anterograde symptom likely in people with Alzheimer's disease, and explain the role of the brain structure associated with it. (3 marks)

b

Relatives of people with Alzheimer's disease often report negative mental health indicators such as self-blame and guilt about looking after themselves.

b.i

Outline how rumination could become a risk factor for developing a mental health problem for these relatives. (2 marks)

b.ii

How could cognitive behavioural therapy be used to improve these relatives' mental health? (3 marks)

Show worked solution

a. [3 marks].

• Symptom: the person cannot remember new people they meet after the disease develops, such as the names of their doctors or carers.
• Brain structure: the hippocampus is damaged early in Alzheimer's disease, as neurons die (associated with amyloid plaques and tau tangles).
• Role: the hippocampus consolidates new explicit (episodic and semantic) memories for long-term storage, so with it damaged, new information such as names cannot be stored.

b.i. [2 marks]. Rumination is repeatedly thinking about the same negative thoughts without acting to change anything. A relative who keeps going over their guilt and self-blame about taking time for themselves stays stuck in these negative feelings, which acts as a psychological risk factor that can precipitate a mental health problem such as depression or anxiety.

b.ii. [3 marks].

• Cognitive part: a psychologist helps the relative identify unhelpful thoughts, such as "I'm selfish if I look after myself", and challenge and replace them with realistic ones ("looking after myself helps me care for them").
• Behavioural part: the relative is helped to change unhelpful behaviours, for example by scheduling regular breaks and self-care instead of avoiding them.
• Outcome: as their thinking and behaviour change, their guilt and self-blame ease, improving their mental health.

Study design: part a is partly outside; the current course still covers the hippocampus and explicit memory, and uses Alzheimer's disease as evidence for the role of episodic and semantic memory, but anterograde amnesia is not named. Part b.i is outside the current course (rumination as a risk factor for a mental disorder). Part b.ii still applies: CBT is in Unit 4 as a treatment for specific phobia and a strategy for maintaining mental wellbeing.

From the report. In a (5% full marks), saying the person cannot form new explicit memories was not enough without an example of a symptom. In b.i, answers needed the repetitive nature of rumination and had to be about the relatives, not the patients; answers were expected to steer clear of catastrophic thinking and memory bias. In b.ii, both the cognitive and behavioural parts of CBT were needed, applied to the relatives.

Question 7 (10 marks)

A study of 87 patients with dental phobias randomly allocated them in equal numbers to Condition 1 (one session of systematic desensitisation), Condition 2 (a benzodiazepine taken before a dental appointment) or Condition 3 (no treatment, the control group). Anxiety was self-reported on a Likert scale. A graph shows self-reported anxiety during the appointment, one month after and two months after: Condition 1 about 5.8, 5 and 3; Condition 2 about 6, 8.8 and 8.2; Condition 3 about 9.9, 9.2 and 9. Afterwards, 21 participants in Condition 1, 7 in Condition 2 and 1 in Condition 3 attended future appointments with minimal anxiety.

Analyse the results, comparing similarities and differences in participants' symptoms of anxiety, and discuss how Conditions 1 and 2 acted to reduce the symptoms. (10 marks)

Show worked solution

[10 marks]. A strong response analyses the data, explains both treatments and draws a conclusion. It could cover the following.

• Classify the treatments. Systematic desensitisation is a psychological evidence-based intervention; the benzodiazepine is a biological one.
• Similarity. During the appointment, Conditions 1 and 2 reported similar anxiety (about 5.8 and 6), both well below the control group (about 9.9). So both treatments reduced anxiety in the short term.
• Difference over time. Condition 1's anxiety kept falling, to about 5 after one month and about 3 after two months. Condition 2's anxiety rose to about 8.8 after one month (the phobic response returned) and was still about 8.2 after two months, close to the control group (about 9). The control group stayed highest throughout, falling only slightly.
• Lasting outcomes. With 29 people per condition, 21 of 29 (about 72%) in Condition 1 attended later appointments with minimal anxiety, compared with 7 of 29 (about 24%) in Condition 2 and 1 of 29 (about 3%) in the control group.
• How systematic desensitisation works. Based on classical conditioning, the patient first learns a relaxation technique (such as slow breathing), then builds a fear hierarchy from least to most feared dental stimulus (from a picture of a dentist's chair up to sitting in the chair). They work up the hierarchy, applying relaxation at each step and moving on only when that step no longer triggers fear, so relaxation replaces the conditioned fear response. Because the learning lasts, the benefit continued and grew.
• How benzodiazepines work. People with a phobia may have a GABA dysfunction. Benzodiazepines are GABA agonists: they bind to GABA receptors and enhance GABA's inhibitory effect, making post-synaptic neurons less likely to fire, so fear messages are reduced and the person feels calmer. They are short-acting, so once the drug has left the body the anxiety returns, which explains Condition 2's rise at one month.
• Conclusion and implications. Both treatments reduced anxiety at the appointment, but systematic desensitisation had the longer-lasting effect, even after a single session. Benzodiazepines may help occasionally, but relying on them for regular appointments risks dependence and does not treat the cause, so a psychological treatment is better for the long term.
• Limitations (optional extras). There was no baseline measure before treatment, the between-subjects design does not control participant differences, and self-reports are subjective; an objective measure (such as heart rate) or adding psychoeducation could be considered in future.

Study design: this whole question still applies. Specific phobia, benzodiazepines and systematic desensitisation are all in Unit 4, and the current exams also end with a 10-mark extended response.

From the report. The average was 4.6 out of 10, and almost no one scored full marks. The best answers compared similarities and differences across all three conditions using the graph, explained how both treatments work, and concluded which treatment was most effective. Many answers did one half well (the data, or the treatments) but left out the other.

Advice from the 2021 report

• Answer every multiple-choice question. Marks are not deducted for wrong answers.
• Link every answer to the scenario. Generic answers to application questions could not earn full marks.
• Spell key terms correctly. A misspelling that turns into a different term (for example "semantic" for "somatic") earns no marks.
• Answer every part, and answer the question as it is asked. Question 5a wanted Achara's perspective and Question 2b the role of the reflex, not its steps.
• Write within the marked areas. Papers are scanned and marked online; if you continue in the extra space, number the answer clearly.