HSC Physics 2023
Worked solutions to every question in the 2023 HSC Physics exam. Multiple-choice answers with a one-line reason, and a 'Show worked solution' model answer for each Section II question, aligned to the official NESA marking guidelines.
- Marks
- 100
- Time
- 180 min
- Authority
- NESA
- Updated
Every question from the 2023 HSC Physics exam, with a worked answer. Section II solutions are tucked behind a Show worked solution toggle, so you can attempt a question first and reveal the model answer when you are ready.
How to use this page
- Questions are from the 2023 HSC Physics exam, copyright NSW Education Standards Authority (NESA). Open the official PDF (button above) for the original stimulus diagrams and graphs.
- Answers are original model responses by ExamExplained (Claude Opus 4.8), written to the official marking guidelines, not copied from NESA's sample answers.
- Each Section II solution shows the mark split and a short Marker's note from the notes from the marking centre.
Structure and timing
100 marks in 180 minutes is about 1.8 minutes per mark.
- Section I (20 marks): 20 multiple-choice. Allow about 35 minutes.
- Section II (80 marks): Questions 21 to 34, short and extended response. Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes, in proportion to the marks. Plan the two 9-mark answers (Questions 33 and 34) and the 8-mark answers (Questions 27 and 30) before you write. Always show the formula, the substitution and the units in calculations.
Section I - Multiple choice
- Q1
- Gravitational field strength on a spacecraft decreases as altitude increases due to a change in the: A. mass of Earth B. mass of the spacecraft C. density of the atmosphere D. distance of the spacecraft from Earth's centre
Answer: D - , so only the increasing distance reduces the field. - Q2
- Which diagram best represents transmission of energy from a power station to houses? Answer: C - step-up transformer at the station (high voltage, low current to cut losses), step-down transformer before the houses.
- Q3
- Expected pattern on the screen for a double-slit experiment with light? Answer: C - a series of evenly spaced bright and dark interference fringes of similar intensity.
- Q4
- Caesium-137 (half-life 30 years), 120 g initially. Mass remaining after 90 years? A. 4 g B. 15 g C. 40 g D. 60 g
Answer: B - 90 years is 3 half-lives, so g. - Q5
- Exoplanet in an elliptical orbit, equal distances P, Q, R, S. Greatest travel time between? A. P and Q B. Q and R C. R and S D. S and P
Answer: D - by Kepler's second law the planet is slowest (so takes longest over equal distance) when furthest from the star, near apoapsis (S to P). - Q6
- An electron produces an electromagnetic wave when it is: A. stationary B. in a stable hydrogen atom C. moving at constant velocity D. moving at constant speed in a circular path
Answer: D - circular motion is accelerated motion, and an accelerating charge radiates. - Q7
- Proton and neutron at the same speed - which explains their de Broglie wavelengths? Answer: C - the neutron has the shorter wavelength because its mass is greater; , so larger mass gives shorter wavelength.
- Q8
- A ball launched from a platform lands short of position B. It reaches B by increasing the: A. velocity u B. launch angle C. mass of the ball D. height of the platform
Answer: B - the launch shown is below the optimum, so increasing the launch angle extends the range to B. - Q9
- Black-body curve at 4500 K - difference at 4000 K? Answer: A - a cooler body radiates less at every wavelength, so intensity at all wavelengths is lower (and the peak shifts to longer wavelength).
- Q10
- Loop rotated from Figure I to Figure II. Force on XY and torque compared? Answer: D - the force on XY depends only on , so it is unchanged (I = II); the torque is larger in Figure II where the plane of the loop is parallel to the field.
- Q11
- Uranium decay series - identify X and Y and their processes. Answer: A - X is thorium-234 formed by alpha decay (mass drops by 4, atomic number by 2); Y is protactinium-234 formed by beta decay (atomic number rises by 1).
- Q12
- Plate separation doubled (Figure II), same charge over the same distance X to Y. Change in kinetic energy? A. W B. W/2 C. W D. 2W
Answer: B - doubling halves the field , so the force and the work done over the same distance halve: . - Q13
- Nucleus X has greater binding energy than Y. What follows? Answer: C - greater binding energy comes from a greater mass defect (); total binding energy alone does not decide stability (that needs binding energy per nucleon).
- Q14
- Planet X has 4 times Earth's mass and 3 times its radius. Earth escape velocity 11.2 km/s. Escape velocity at X? A. 8.40 B. 9.70 C. 12.9 D. 14.9
Answer: C - , so km/s. - Q15
- Photoelectric evidence consistent with Einstein's photon model? Answer: A - photoelectrons are ejected only below a threshold wavelength, showing a minimum photon energy is needed, which the wave model cannot explain.
- Q16
- Rod Y held stationary above rod X by magnetic interaction. Which must be correct? Answer: C - the table pushes up on X with a force equal and opposite to the combined weight of X and Y, since X transmits Y's weight (held up magnetically) to the table.
- Q17
- Mass on a rigid arm oscillating between X and Z. Best description of the torque? Answer: B - gravitational torque about O is zero at the lowest point Y (arm vertical) and a maximum at the extremes X and Z (arm horizontal).
- Q18
- Increasing the mass of each particle - correct paths in a gravitational field and an electric field? Answer: A - in a gravitational field the trajectory is independent of mass (path unchanged, X); in an electric field a heavier charge deflects less, landing nearer (path changes).
- Q19
- Charge distribution in wire X seen from a positive charge in wire Y, with opposite currents. Answer: B - in Y's frame the positive charges of X (moving) are length-contracted relative to its electrons, so X appears to carry net positive charge.
- Q20
- Velocity-distance graph consistent with an accelerating expansion of the universe? Answer: D - the most distant (oldest) galaxies recede more slowly than a straight Hubble line predicts, so the curve falls below the line at large distance, showing expansion has sped up since.
Section II - Short and extended response
Question 21 (5 marks)
A Hertzsprung-Russell diagram is shown, with Star A on the main sequence and Star B among the white dwarfs.
(a) Identify TWO variables that determine the luminosity of a star. (2 marks)
(b) Describe differences between stars A and B. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. The luminosity of a star is set by its surface temperature and its radius (surface area). From the Stefan-Boltzmann relation , a larger radius or a higher temperature both raise the luminosity. (Mass is also accepted, since it determines both of these.)
(b) [3 marks]. Star A is a main-sequence star: it is fusing hydrogen into helium in its core, is comparatively large and hot, and has a high luminosity (well above ). Star B is a white dwarf: it has no nuclear fusion occurring, is very small and dense (about Earth-sized), and despite a high surface temperature has a low luminosity (below ) because of its tiny surface area. So Star A is far more luminous and is still fusing fuel, whereas Star B is a stellar remnant.
Marker's note. Keep luminosity (total power output) distinct from brightness (as seen from Earth). For (b), read the H-R diagram carefully and compare real features such as fuel source and size, not just position on the chart.
Question 22 (3 marks)
A spacecraft passes Earth at 0.9c and emits a light pulse every s as measured by the crew. What is the time between the pulses as measured by an observer on Earth?
Show worked solution
[3 marks]. The proper time s is measured on the spacecraft (where the two pulses occur at the same place). The Earth observer measures the dilated time:
Marker's note. The time measured on the spacecraft is the proper (relativistic) time . The common error was evaluating the denominator incorrectly.
Question 23 (7 marks)
The James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) has a mass of kg and orbits the Sun at about m.
(a) The Sun has a mass of kg. Calculate the magnitude of the gravitational force the Sun exerts on the JWST. (2 marks)
(b) The telescope is sensitive to wavelengths from m to m. What is the minimum photon energy it can detect? (3 marks)
(c) The JWST observed an exoplanet emitting a peak wavelength of m. Calculate the temperature of the exoplanet. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks].
(b) [3 marks]. The minimum photon energy corresponds to the longest wavelength ( m), since :
(c) [2 marks]. Using Wien's displacement law with m K:
Marker's note. Handle scientific notation carefully (for example equals ). In (b) the lower energy goes with the longer wavelength. In (c) report the temperature in kelvin, the SI unit used in astronomy.
Question 24 (3 marks)
An electron is travelling at m/s in a circular path of radius 10 m. Calculate the magnetic field required to keep the electron in the path.
Show worked solution
[3 marks]. The magnetic force supplies the centripetal force, so , giving:
The field must be perpendicular to the velocity (out of the page for the path shown) so that points toward the centre.
Marker's note. Equate the magnetic force to the centripetal force (). Magnetic field is a vector, so state a direction. Ampere's law (for straight conductors) does not apply to a single moving charge.
Question 25 (4 marks)
(a) The diagram represents a DC electric motor. Describe the function of part X (the split-ring commutator). (2 marks)
(b) Explain why the torque of a DC motor decreases as its rotational speed increases. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Part X is the split-ring commutator. Its function is to reverse the direction of the current in the coil every half turn, just as the coil passes through the plane perpendicular to the field. This keeps the force on each side of the coil acting the same rotational way, so the coil continues turning in one direction rather than reversing.
(b) [2 marks]. As the coil spins it cuts field lines and, by Lenz's law, induces a back emf that opposes the supply voltage. The back emf grows with rotational speed, so the net voltage and therefore the motor current fall. Since torque is proportional to current (), the torque decreases as the speed increases.
Marker's note. In (a), answer the key word "describe" and name the commutator's role (reversing the current). In (b), show the cause-and-effect chain: faster rotation, larger back emf, smaller current, smaller torque. Eddy currents and back emf are not the same thing, and parts (a) and (b) are separate.
Question 26 (3 marks)
Consider the reaction . Using the masses in the table (C 12.064 u, B 9.013 u, He 4.003 u, H 1.008 u), calculate the energy released in this reaction.
Show worked solution
[3 marks]. Mass defect = (mass of products) - (mass of reactants):
The magnitude u is converted to energy. Using MeV:
So about 52 MeV is released.
Marker's note. Transpose the masses from the table carefully and set out the working logically. The table gives mass in atomic mass units, not energy. Avoid rounding too early, which loses significant figures. State the unit (MeV or joules).
Question 27 (8 marks)
(a) Explain how the composition and temperature of a star can be determined from its spectrum. (4 marks)
(b) The diagram shows one hydrogen emission line (656 nm) from a star's spectrum. Explain the changes to this spectral line that would be observed as a result of the star's rotational velocity, and modify the diagram to support your answer. (4 marks)
Show worked solution
- (a) [4 marks]
- Composition: each element absorbs and emits light at a unique set of wavelengths. The pattern of dark absorption lines in a star's spectrum is matched against the known line pattern of elements measured in the laboratory; the elements whose patterns appear are the elements present in the star's outer layers.
- Temperature
- a star radiates approximately as a black body, with a continuous curve whose peak intensity lies at a wavelength that depends only on temperature (Wien's law, ). Measuring the wavelength of peak intensity gives the surface temperature: a hotter star peaks at a shorter (bluer) wavelength. The relative strengths of certain lines also indicate temperature.
- (b) [4 marks]
- As the star rotates on its axis, one edge approaches Earth and the other recedes. Light from the approaching edge is blue-shifted to a slightly shorter wavelength, and light from the receding edge is red-shifted to a slightly longer wavelength; light from the centre is unshifted. Because the whole disc contributes a continuous range of these shifts, the single 656 nm line is broadened (smeared symmetrically about 656 nm) rather than split. A faster rotation gives a wider line.
Marker's note. In (a) be explicit that the wavelength of peak intensity (not "maximum wavelength") gives temperature via Wien's law, and link unique element line patterns to composition. In (b) tie blue-shift and red-shift to the approaching and receding sides of the rotation (not the star's revolution), giving a broadened line.
Question 28 (5 marks)
An ideal transformer on a 240 V AC supply has 300 primary turns and 50 secondary turns, feeding two identical globes X and Y, with a switch in series with Y.
(a) Calculate the voltage across globe X when the switch is open. (2 marks)
(b) Explain why, after the switch has been closed, the current in the primary coil is different from when the switch is open. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. For an ideal transformer :
With the switch open only globe X carries current, so the full 40 V of the secondary is across globe X.
(b) [3 marks]. Closing the switch puts globes X and Y in parallel across the secondary. Two equal resistances in parallel have a smaller total resistance than X alone, so by Ohm's law () the secondary current increases. An ideal transformer conserves energy, so ; with the primary voltage fixed at 240 V, a larger secondary power draws a larger primary current. So the primary current is greater after the switch is closed.
Marker's note. In (a) show the substitution into the turns ratio. In (b) work through the chain: adding Y in parallel lowers the secondary resistance, raising the secondary current, and conservation of energy then raises the primary current.
Question 29 (4 marks)
When light from an incandescent lamp is passed through a plane polarising filter, the intensity is reduced. Explain this phenomenon.
Show worked solution
[4 marks]. Light from an incandescent lamp is unpolarised: the electric-field oscillations of its electromagnetic waves point in all directions perpendicular to the direction of travel, with equal intensity in every plane.
A plane polarising filter transmits only the component of each wave's electric field that is parallel to its polarising axis, and absorbs the perpendicular component. For a wave at an angle to the axis, only the projected component (proportional to ) passes. Averaged over all the random orientations in unpolarised light, only about half the energy gets through, and what emerges is plane-polarised. Because part of every wave's field is absorbed, the transmitted intensity is reduced.
Marker's note. State the key feature of the light before (unpolarised) and after (polarised) the filter, and explain that the filter absorbs the field components not parallel to its axis, reducing intensity. A labelled diagram strengthens the answer.
Question 30 (8 marks)
A coil produces a magnetic field at position P that rises linearly from 0 to about T over 0 to 0.03 s, then stays constant to 0.05 s. Each ring has cross-sectional area m^2. Ring X is complete; ring Y has a small gap.
(a) With ring X at P, account for the force acting on the ring from 0 to 0.05 s. (4 marks)
(b) (i) With ring Y at P, explain the behaviour of the ring. (2 marks)
(b) (ii) Calculate the maximum induced emf in ring Y. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [4 marks]. From 0 to 0.03 s the coil's magnetic field, and hence the flux through ring X, increases at a constant rate. By Faraday's law this changing flux induces an emf and therefore a current around the complete ring. By Lenz's law that induced current opposes the increase, creating a magnetic field that opposes the coil's field, so the ring is repelled from the coil with a steady force over this interval.
From 0.03 s to 0.05 s the field (and flux) is constant, so there is no change in flux, no induced emf, no induced current, and therefore no magnetic force on the ring.
(b)(i) [2 marks]. Ring Y has a gap, so it is not a complete circuit. A changing flux still induces an emf around it, but no current can flow, so there is no induced magnetic field and no force acts on the ring; it stays still.
(b)(ii) [2 marks]. The maximum emf occurs while the flux is changing (0 to 0.03 s). Using :
Marker's note. In (a) connect the rate of change of flux to the induced current and then to the repulsive force, and note there is no force when the field is constant. In (b)(i) the gap means no current and so no motion. In (b)(ii) substitute the correct values, including the powers of ten.
Question 31 (5 marks)
A roller-coaster magnetic brake: two rows of magnets pass either side of an aluminium braking fin. A graph shows the acceleration over time for entry speeds of 10 m/s and 12 m/s. Explain the similarities and differences between the two sets of data.
Show worked solution
[5 marks]. Similarities. Both curves have the same overall shape. As the car enters the fin, more magnets engage and the rate of change of flux in the aluminium rises, so the induced eddy currents and the opposing (braking) force grow, giving an increasing deceleration that reaches a maximum at about 0.8 s. After that, the car is slowing, so the flux changes more slowly, the eddy currents weaken, and the braking deceleration falls back toward zero in both cases.
Differences. The faster (12 m/s) entry produces a greater maximum deceleration, because the higher speed gives a greater rate of change of flux and so larger eddy currents and a larger retarding force. The faster case also keeps a greater deceleration for most of the time (until about 3 s), since it remains faster and keeps inducing stronger eddy currents than the slower case throughout the overlap.
Marker's note. Engage with all parts of the graph (rise to the peak and the decay), and use cause and effect: speed sets the rate of flux change, which sets the eddy currents and so the braking force.
Question 32 (7 marks)
A horizontal disc rotates at 3 revolutions per second, top at ground level. At 2 m from the centre, a launcher fires a ball vertically upward at 5.72 m/s from position X. Calculate the ball's position relative to the launcher's new position at the instant the ball hits the ground.
Show worked solution
[7 marks]. The ball leaves with two independent motions: a vertical launch velocity and a horizontal velocity equal to the rim speed of the disc.
Horizontal (tangential) speed of the rim: the period of one revolution is s, so
Time of flight (vertical): the ball returns to ground level, so with m/s and m/s^2,
Range of the ball: travelling in a straight line tangentially,
Where the launcher is now: in 1.17 s the disc turns revolutions, that is half a revolution past a whole number, so the launcher sits diametrically opposite its firing point, 2 m on the far side of the centre (4 m back along the line of flight from the firing point).
Position of the ball relative to the launcher's new position:
So the ball lands about 44.1 m from the launcher's new position, at about 5.2 degrees to the line of flight.
Marker's note. The key insight is that the ball keeps a constant horizontal (tangential) velocity while the launcher keeps rotating. Lay out the working clearly, label positions and angles, and avoid rounding too early (small differences give answers up to about 44.2 m and angles down to about 5.1 degrees).
Question 33 (9 marks)
The interaction of subatomic particles with fields, as well as with other particles and matter, has increased our understanding of processes in the physical world and of the properties of the subatomic particles themselves. Justify this statement with reference to observations and experiments scientists have carried out.
Show worked solution
[9 marks]. Both particle-field and particle-particle investigations have driven our understanding forward. At least two of each, explained, justify the statement.
Particle-field interactions.
- Thomson's experiment. A beam of cathode rays was deflected by electric and magnetic fields. Balancing the deflections let Thomson measure the charge-to-mass ratio of the electron, showing cathode rays were tiny negative particles common to all matter. This revealed the electron and overturned the idea of an indivisible atom.
- Millikan's oil-drop experiment. Charged oil drops were suspended in an electric field by balancing the electric force against gravity. This measured the fundamental charge on the electron, showing charge is quantised in units of .
- Photoelectric effect. Light ejecting electrons from a metal, with a threshold frequency and kinetic energies independent of intensity, showed light interacts with electrons as quanta (photons), supporting the quantum model of light.
Particle-particle interactions.
- Geiger-Marsden experiment. Alpha particles fired at thin gold foil mostly passed through, but a few scattered through large angles. This scattering showed the atom is mostly empty space with a tiny, dense, positively charged nucleus.
- Chadwick's experiment. Bombarding beryllium produced a neutral, penetrating radiation that knocked protons from paraffin. Applying conservation of momentum and energy identified the neutron, completing the proton-neutron picture of the nucleus.
- Particle accelerators. High-energy collisions between particles produced showers of new particles, revealing quarks and building the Standard Model, deepening our understanding of the fundamental constituents of matter.
Across these, deflecting particles in fields measured their basic properties (charge, mass, quantised charge), while colliding particles with matter exposed the structure of the atom and nucleus and uncovered new particles - directly supporting the statement.
Marker's note. Deconstruct the question and address every part: at least two observations and at least two experiments, covering both particle-field and particle-particle interactions. Know the methods and outcomes of the key experiments and use diagrams where they help.
Question 34 (9 marks)
A 400 kg satellite is in a circular orbit of radius m around Earth, with J and total energy J. At P the engines fire, increasing kinetic energy by J instantaneously, then shut down. The new trajectory passes through Q at m from Earth's centre.
(a) Analyse qualitatively the energy changes as the satellite moves from P to Q. (2 marks)
(b) Show that the kinetic energy of the satellite at Q is J. (4 marks)
(c) Explain the motion of the satellite after it passes through Q. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. After the burn at P, the engine is off, so only gravity acts and total mechanical energy is conserved. As the satellite moves out from P to Q its orbital radius increases, so its gravitational potential energy increases (becomes less negative). By conservation of energy its kinetic energy decreases by the same amount. So is converted into as the satellite climbs from P to Q.
(b) [4 marks]. The total energy just after the burn is the original total energy plus the kinetic energy added:
Energy is conserved from P to Q, so . The potential energy at Q is
Therefore
(c) [3 marks]. Compare the satellite's speed at Q with the speed needed for a circular orbit there. From :
The speed required for a circular orbit at is
Since , the satellite is moving faster than the circular-orbit speed at Q, so gravity cannot hold it in a circle there. It will continue on its trajectory, increasing its distance from Earth (the orbit is now an ellipse with Q below its apogee).
Marker's note. Use conservation of energy throughout, with clear subscripts for the P and Q values, and remember an increase in radius makes less negative (an increase). In (c) support the explanation with the comparison of the actual speed to the required circular-orbit speed.
General marker feedback
Stronger responses across the paper: read each question carefully and addressed every part; planned extended responses for a logical sequence; integrated correct scientific terms; showed clear cause-and-effect for key physical concepts; engaged with the stimulus and referred to it when required; showed full working including formulas and substitutions; and gave correct units and directions for vector quantities. Students were expected to be familiar with the Data and Formulae sheets, SI units and prefixes, and to be able to plot and read graphs and apply conservation laws across a range of contexts.
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