HSC Physics 2021
Worked solutions to every question in the 2021 HSC Physics exam. Multiple-choice answers with a one-line reason, and a 'Show worked solution' model answer for each Section II question, aligned to the official NESA marking guidelines.
- Marks
- 100
- Time
- 180 min
- Authority
- NESA
- Updated
Every question from the 2021 HSC Physics exam, with a worked answer. Section II solutions are tucked behind a Show worked solution toggle, so you can attempt a question first and reveal the model answer when you are ready.
How to use this page
- Questions are from the 2021 HSC Physics exam, copyright NSW Education Standards Authority (NESA). Open the official PDF (button above) for the original stimulus diagrams and graphs.
- Answers are original model responses by ExamExplained (Claude Opus 4.8), written to the official marking guidelines, not copied from NESA's sample answers.
- Each Section II solution shows the mark split and a short Marker's note from the notes from the marking centre.
Structure and timing
100 marks in 180 minutes is about 1.8 minutes per mark.
- Section I (20 marks): 20 multiple-choice. Allow about 35 minutes.
- Section II (80 marks): Questions 21 to 35, short and extended response. Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes, in proportion to the marks. Plan the long answers (Question 31, 7 marks, and Question 33, 9 marks) before you write.
Section I - Multiple choice
- Q1
- A marble is rolled off a horizontal bench. Rolling it at a slower speed would: A. increase the range B. decrease the range C. increase the time of flight D. decrease the time of flight
Answer: B - horizontal speed sets the range but not the fall time, so a slower marble lands closer. - Q2
- A positively charged particle moves at velocity v in an electric field. What is the direction of the electric force on it?
Answer: C - the force on a positive charge is along the field, up the page; it does not depend on the velocity. - Q3
- Which is NOT a fundamental particle in the Standard Model? A. Electron B. Gluon C. Muon D. Proton
Answer: D - a proton is made of quarks, so it is composite, not fundamental. - Q4
- A spaceship approaches Earth at 0.8c, sending radio pulses. Which quantity do the astronaut and the Earth observer measure to be the same?
Answer: B - the speed of light (the radio pulses) is invariant in all inertial frames. - Q5
- A spectrum shows the feature Y. Identify the source and the features Y.
Answer: A - a continuous spectrum with dark gaps is a star showing absorption lines. - Q6
- Part of a stellar fusion process is shown. What is the isotope R? A. H-2 B. He-2 C. H-3 D. He-3
Answer: D - two protons and one neutron with a positron and neutrino emitted gives He-3. - Q7
- In an ideal transformer the secondary current is four times the primary current. Identify the type and the turns ratio.
Answer: C - higher secondary current means lower secondary voltage (step down), and current is inversely proportional to turns, so primary to secondary is 4 : 1. - Q8
- A bright spot appears at the centre of the shadow of a disc. It is caused by a combination of: A. interference and refraction B. refraction and polarisation C. polarisation and diffraction D. diffraction and interference
Answer: D - light bends around the edge (diffraction) and arrives in phase at the centre (constructive interference). - Q9
- A mass M is moved from the midpoint between two identical stars to position X. Which graph shows its gravitational potential energy U?
Answer: C - U is least negative (a maximum) at the symmetric midpoint and becomes more negative as M nears a star. - Q10
- A strong magnet is moved past a copper block at constant speed. What is the direction of the force on the copper block?
Answer: B - eddy currents oppose the relative motion (Lenz's law), so the block is dragged in the direction of the magnet's motion, to the right. - Q11
- Peak wavelength emitted by a body at 310 K? A. 9.3 x 10^-6 m B. 7.8 x 10^-5 m C. 9.3 x 10^-3 m D. 7.8 x 10^-2 m
Answer: A - Wien's law, 2.898 x 10^-3 / 310 = 9.3 x 10^-6 m. - Q12
- Which graph shows the magnitude of back emf in a DC motor against angular velocity?
Answer: D - back emf is directly proportional to angular velocity, so a straight line through the origin. - Q13
- Which electron transition in a Bohr hydrogen atom produces the shortest wavelength? A. W B. X C. Y D. Z
Answer: B - the largest energy drop gives the shortest wavelength, which is transition X. - Q14
- Which statement describes the Earth to Moon gravitational interaction correctly?
Answer: A - the Moon pulls on the Earth, so the Earth accelerates (slightly) towards the Moon; the forces are equal but the accelerations are not. - Q15
- Light passes through two polarisers; the second is fixed. How are I1 and I2 affected if the first polariser is rotated?
Answer: C - I1 from unpolarised light is unchanged, but rotating the first axis changes the angle to the second, so only I2 changes. - Q16
- The Sun outputs 3.85 x 10^28 W. By how much does its mass fall each minute? A. 4.28 x 10^11 kg B. 2.57 x 10^13 kg C. 1.28 x 10^20 kg D. 7.70 x 10^21 kg
Answer: B - m = Pt/c^2 = (3.85 x 10^28 x 60) / (9 x 10^16) = 2.57 x 10^13 kg. - Q17
- Two parallel conductors X and Y carry AC, with X below Y, suspended on spring balances. Which comparison of the forces is correct?
Answer: C - X supports Y's weight as well as the magnetic force, so the force measured on X is greater than or equal to that on Y. - Q18
- A positive charge falls between charged plates; the switch is opened at half height. Which trajectory is correct?
Answer: A - while the switch is closed the field deflects the charge sideways; once opened only gravity acts, so the path straightens to vertical. - Q19
- Rh-106 (beta emitter, 30 s half-life) and an electrode in a chamber. The current I (at zero supply) and stopping voltage Vs are measured, then repeated minutes later. How do they compare?
Answer: A - the radioactive emission decays so the current falls, but the stopping voltage depends on the energy per particle, which is unchanged, so only I changes. - Q20
- Photons of energy 2f (work function f) free photoelectrons that move in a circle of radius r in a magnetic field. If the photon energy doubles, the new radius is: A. 2r B. 3r C. sqrt(2) r D. sqrt(3) r
Answer: D - KE goes from f to 3f, and r is proportional to sqrt(KE), so the radius becomes sqrt(3) r.
Section II - Short and extended response
Question 21 (4 marks)
A DC motor is a single loop of wire 0.10 m x 0.07 m. The magnetic field strength is 0.40 T and a current of 14 A flows through the loop.
(a) Calculate the magnitude of the maximum torque produced by the motor. (2 marks)
(b) Describe how the magnitude of the torque changes as the loop moves through half a rotation from the position shown. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. Maximum torque occurs when the plane of the coil is parallel to the field, so with .
(b) [2 marks]. The position shown is the maximum-torque position (the coil normal is perpendicular to the field). As the loop turns, the torque decreases to zero after a quarter turn (90 degrees), when the coil normal is parallel to the field. Through the second quarter turn the torque rises back to its maximum at 180 degrees.
Marker's note. A half rotation is 180 degrees, not 90. The maximum torque is at the position drawn (normal perpendicular to the field), so the magnitude falls to zero at 90 degrees and returns to a maximum at 180 degrees.
Question 22 (3 marks)
A horizontal disc rotates at a constant rate. Points X and Y are labelled, with X twice as far from the centre as Y.
Compare the angular and instantaneous velocities of X with those of Y. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
[3 marks]. Every point on a rigid disc sweeps the same angle in the same time, so the angular velocities of X and Y are equal ().
Instantaneous (linear) speed is . Because X is twice as far from the centre (), the instantaneous speed of X is twice that of Y. Both instantaneous velocities are tangential, and at the labelled instant they point in the same direction.
Marker's note. State that the angular velocities are equal, then use to show the instantaneous speed of X is double that of Y. Support the comparison with the radius information from the stimulus rather than asserting it.
Question 23 (4 marks)
Describe how Millikan and Thomson each used fields to determine properties of the electron. (4 marks)
Show worked solution
[4 marks].
Thomson passed a beam of cathode-ray electrons through crossed electric and magnetic fields. He adjusted the field strengths so the electric force and the magnetic force balanced and the beam was undeflected, giving the speed. Switching off one field and measuring the deflection let him calculate the charge-to-mass ratio () of the electron.
Millikan sprayed charged oil drops between two horizontal plates and used an electric field to balance the gravitational force on a drop so it was suspended. From the balancing voltage and the drop's weight he found the charge on each drop, and the charges were all multiples of a smallest value, the charge on the electron ().
Marker's note. Treat the two scientists separately, not as a single 'they' response. Name the fields each used and the distinct property each found: Thomson the charge-to-mass ratio, Millikan the charge on the electron.
Question 24 (3 marks)
A stationary coil of 35 turns and area 0.02 m^2 sits between two electromagnets producing a uniform field of 0.15 T, connected to a voltmeter. The field is reduced to zero at a constant rate over 0.4 s.
Calculate the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
[3 marks]. The flux through one turn changes from to zero:
By Faraday's law, :
The magnitude of the induced emf is 0.26 V.
Marker's note. Show the change in flux as a separate step and carry the negative sign through Faraday's law before taking the magnitude. Full working (formula, substitution, answer) is expected.
Question 25 (5 marks)
A satellite is launched from the surface of Mars into an orbit directly above one position on the surface. Mass of Mars = 6.39 x 10^23 kg; length of a Martian day = 24 hours and 40 minutes.
(a) Identify TWO energy changes as the satellite moves from the surface into orbit. (2 marks)
(b) Calculate the orbital radius of the satellite. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. As the satellite rises from rest on the surface into orbit, its gravitational potential energy increases (it moves further from Mars, so U becomes less negative) and its kinetic energy increases (it speeds up from stationary to orbital speed). Chemical energy from the launch is transformed into both.
(b) [3 marks]. The orbit is geostationary, so the period equals one Martian day:
Using Kepler's third law, :
Marker's note. Convert the period fully into seconds (24 h 40 min = 88 800 s) before substituting, and use Kepler's third law with the correct units throughout.
Question 26 (6 marks)
A student measures Planck's constant, h, using a device where the voltage V needed to produce frequency f is . The data is: (3.5 x 10^14 Hz, 1.3 V), (4.8 x 10^14 Hz, 1.7 V), (5.3 x 10^14 Hz, 1.9 V), (7.0 x 10^14 Hz, 2.6 V).
(a) Graph this data on the axes provided. Include a line of best fit. (3 marks)
(b) The student proposes using data point 1 to calculate h. Justify a better method to calculate h from the data provided. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [3 marks]. Plot V (y-axis) against f (x-axis), choosing a scale that spreads the four points across the gridlines (for example 0 to 8 x 10^14 Hz and 0 to 3 V), then draw a single straight line of best fit that balances the points rather than joining them dot to dot.
(b) [3 marks]. A better method is to find h from the gradient of the line of best fit, not from a single point. Rearranging shows the gradient is , so . Reading two well-separated points on the line and computing the gradient, then multiplying by C, gives h.
This is justified because the line of best fit uses all four data points, which averages out random errors in individual readings and reduces the effect of any single anomalous point. Using only data point 1 relies on one measurement and any error in it passes straight into h.
Marker's note. The command word is 'justify', so give a reason: the gradient method uses all the data and reduces the effect of random (and systematic) error. Do not just calculate h from one point.
Question 27 (6 marks)
A student wants to levitate a thin metal rod in a magnetic field of 1.2 T, with a current of 2.3 A through the rod.
(a) Use a labelled diagram to show a suitable orientation of the current and the magnetic field to achieve this. Include relevant forces. (3 marks)
(b) Explain why the maximum mass per unit length of the rod cannot exceed 0.282 kg m^-1. Support your answer with a calculation. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [3 marks]. Lay the rod horizontally. The magnetic force must point straight up to oppose the weight, which points straight down. Using the right-hand rule, the current and the field must be perpendicular to each other and to the upward force. For example, with the field horizontal and pointing to the right, the current must flow into the page so that gives an upward force.
(b) [3 marks]. Levitation needs the upward magnetic force to be at least the weight. Per unit length, the magnetic force is and the weight is . The rod just floats when they are equal:
If the mass per unit length exceeds 0.282 kg m^-1, the weight per metre is larger than the largest magnetic force per metre the field and current can provide, so the net force is downward and the rod falls. Therefore 0.282 kg m^-1 is the maximum value for which levitation is possible.
Marker's note. Show the full substitution to reach 0.282 kg m^-1, then give the cause and effect: above this value the gravitational force per unit length exceeds the magnetic force, so levitation is no longer possible.
Question 28 (5 marks)
A spaceship travels to a distant star at constant speed v. When it arrives, 15 years have passed on Earth but 9.4 years have passed for the astronaut.
(a) What is the distance to the star as measured by an observer on Earth? (3 marks)
(b) Outline how special relativity imposes a limitation on the maximum velocity of the spaceship. (2 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [3 marks]. The astronaut's 9.4 years is the proper time ; the Earth time is years. From time dilation , the Lorentz factor is
Solving for v, , so .
The Earth observer sees the ship travel at v for 15 years:
This is about 11.7 light years.
(b) [2 marks]. As v approaches c, the relativistic momentum grows without bound. Increasing the speed further would require ever larger force, and reaching c would need infinite force (and infinite energy), which is impossible. So no spaceship with mass can reach or exceed the speed of light; c is the limit.
Marker's note. In (a) identify years as the proper time, keep units consistent, and check the resulting speed is below c. In (b) link the rising relativistic momentum (or mass-energy) explicitly to the unattainable speed c.
Question 29 (5 marks)
Bohr, de Broglie and Schrodinger EACH proposed a model for the structure of the atom. How does the nature of the electron proposed in each of the three models differ? (5 marks)
Show worked solution
[5 marks].
Bohr treated the electron as a negatively charged particle orbiting the nucleus in fixed circular paths. Only certain orbits, with quantised angular momentum and discrete energy levels, are allowed, and the electron does not radiate while in an allowed orbit.
de Broglie proposed that the electron has a wave nature as well as a particle nature (matter waves). The allowed Bohr orbits are exactly those whose circumference fits a whole number of electron wavelengths, forming a stable standing wave; this explained why orbits are quantised.
Schrodinger removed definite orbits altogether and described the electron by a wavefunction. The square of the wavefunction gives the probability of finding the electron in a region, so the electron is spread out as a probability cloud (orbital) rather than following a path.
The models therefore move from a localised particle in a fixed orbit (Bohr), to a wave-particle standing wave (de Broglie), to a purely probabilistic wave description (Schrodinger).
Marker's note. Link each description to the correct scientist and bring out the differences: a particle in quantised orbits, a standing matter wave, and a probabilistic wavefunction. Structure the response model by model rather than blending them.
Question 30 (5 marks)
A proton accelerates from rest between parallel charged plates 12 cm apart, starting midway. Ignore gravity.
(a) The electrical potential energy of the proton is graphed for the first 5 cm of its motion. On the graph, sketch the corresponding kinetic energy of the proton over the same distance. (2 marks)
(b) The experiment is repeated using an electron in place of the proton. Explain how the motion of the electron would differ from that of the proton. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [2 marks]. By conservation of energy, the kinetic energy gained equals the electric potential energy lost. The proton starts from rest, so KE starts at zero, and its KE curve is the mirror image of the falling potential-energy graph (their sum stays constant). Where the potential-energy line falls by a certain amount, the KE line rises by the same amount, so the KE graph is the potential-energy graph reflected about a horizontal line, starting at zero.
(b) [3 marks]. The electron carries the same magnitude of charge as the proton but the opposite sign, so it feels a force of the same size in the opposite direction and accelerates towards the other plate. Because the electron's mass is about 1800 times smaller, from it has a much larger acceleration and reaches the plate in a much shorter time. It still gains the same kinetic energy over the same potential difference (charge magnitudes are equal), but it does so far more quickly.
Marker's note. Give clear cause and effect: opposite charge means opposite direction of motion; equal-magnitude charge means equal force; smaller mass means greater acceleration (and shorter time).
Question 31 (7 marks)
Two identical solenoids are mounted on carts. Each solenoid connects to a galvanometer; the solenoid on cart 1 also connects to an open switch and a battery. The total mass of cart 1 is twice that of cart 2.
Explain what would be observed when the switch on cart 1 is closed. In your answer, refer to the current in each galvanometer and the initial movement of the carts. (7 marks)
Show worked solution
- [7 marks]
- Galvanometer on cart 1
- closing the switch drives a steady direct current from the battery through solenoid 1, so G1 shows a constant deflection. This current makes solenoid 1 an electromagnet with, say, a south pole facing cart 2.
- Galvanometer on cart 2
- as solenoid 1's field grows from zero, the flux through solenoid 2 changes. By Faraday's law this changing flux induces an emf and a current in solenoid 2, so G2 shows a brief deflection. By Lenz's law the induced current opposes the change, so solenoid 2 forms a south pole facing cart 1. Once the current in solenoid 1 becomes steady, the flux through solenoid 2 stops changing and the current in G2 falls back to zero, so G2 deflects only momentarily.
- Initial movement
- the two solenoids present like poles to each other (south facing south), so they repel. The carts are pushed apart in opposite directions. The magnetic forces on the two carts are equal and opposite (Newton's third law), so momentum is conserved: . Since cart 1 has twice the mass of cart 2, cart 1 moves off at half the speed of cart 2.
Marker's note. Use the battery terminals and the right-hand grip rule to fix the field directions, link the induced current to Faraday's and Lenz's laws, and apply conservation of momentum to get the speed ratio (cart 1 at half the speed of cart 2). Opposing fields means like poles facing, not opposite poles facing.
Question 32 (5 marks)
Two students lay a piece of elastic straight on a table, fixed at one end, with three markings at regular intervals at distances d1, d2 and d3 from the fixed end. The elastic is pulled to extend it and each distance is observed to double.
How well do the observations from this investigation model the evidence that led to Hubble's discovery of the expansion of the universe? Justify your answer. (5 marks)
Show worked solution
[5 marks]. The model works well in its central feature. When the elastic is stretched, each marking moves away from the fixed end by an amount proportional to its original distance: the marking at d3 moves three times as far as the marking at d1 in the same time, so its recession speed is proportional to distance. This is exactly Hubble's evidence, that more distant galaxies recede faster, with recession speed proportional to distance (). The model also captures the key idea that the space (the elastic) between the markings expands, rather than the markings travelling through a fixed space, just as space itself expands between galaxies.
Limitations weaken the analogy. The elastic stretches in only one dimension, whereas the real expansion is three-dimensional and has no fixed end or centre. The markings themselves stretch slightly, but real galaxies are held together by gravity and do not expand. The investigation also measures only positions, while Hubble's evidence came from redshift in galactic spectra, which measures recession speed directly.
Overall the elastic models the proportionality at the heart of Hubble's discovery well, but oversimplifies the dimensionality and the source of the evidence.
Marker's note. The question is about modelling, not just Hubble's discovery, so justify using the stimulus (compare the stretch of the near and far markings) and weigh both how the model succeeds and its limitations.
Question 33 (9 marks)
Two experiments use identical 400 nm light sources. In Experiment A the light falls on two narrow slits 5.0 x 10^-5 m apart, producing a pattern on a screen 3.0 m behind the slits. In Experiment B the light falls on metal samples in an evacuated tube and the kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons can be measured. Results for B: nickel (work function 8.25 x 10^-19 J, no photoelectrons); calcium (work function 4.60 x 10^-19 J, photoelectrons observed).
How do the results from Experiment A and Experiment B support TWO different models of light? In your answer, include a quantitative analysis of each experiment. (9 marks)
Show worked solution
[9 marks].
Experiment A supports the wave model. Two coherent sources produce a pattern of bright and dark bands on the screen. The band spacing is
Bright bands occur where the path difference is a whole number of wavelengths (constructive interference) and dark bands where it is a half-odd number of wavelengths (destructive interference). Only waves can interfere to add and cancel like this, so the regularly spaced fringes are direct evidence for the wave model of light.
Experiment B supports the particle (photon) model. The energy of one 400 nm photon is
This single-photon energy is greater than the work function of calcium ( J) but less than that of nickel ( J), which is exactly why photoelectrons are freed from calcium but not from nickel. Each photon acts as one particle delivering all its energy to one electron, so increasing the intensity would not help nickel; only a higher photon energy would. The maximum kinetic energy of the calcium photoelectrons is
A wave model predicts that any colour should eventually free electrons if bright enough, which contradicts the result, so the photoelectric effect supports the particle model of light.
Together, the interference pattern (Experiment A) and the photoelectric effect (Experiment B) show that light behaves as a wave in some situations and as particles in others, the basis of wave-particle duality.
Marker's note. Address every part: calculate the fringe spacing for A, the photon energy (and the calcium photoelectron kinetic energy) for B, and link constructive and destructive interference to the wave model and the one-photon-one-electron threshold to the particle model.
Question 34 (7 marks)
A 3.0 kg mass is launched from the edge of a cliff and lands at X on the ground. The kinetic energy is graphed from launch (t0) until it hits the ground (t2). KE values: t0 = 864 J, t1 = 284 J, t2 = 1393 J.
(a) Account for the relative values of kinetic energy at t0, t1 and t2. (4 marks)
(b) The horizontal component of the velocity of the mass during its flight is 13.76 m s^-1. Calculate the time of flight of the mass. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [4 marks]. The mass is launched upward at an angle, so it has both horizontal and vertical velocity. The horizontal component is constant (no horizontal force), but the vertical component is changed by gravity.
- At t0 (launch): KE is 864 J from the full horizontal and vertical components.
- At t1: KE is a minimum (284 J) but not zero. This is the top of the path, where the vertical velocity is momentarily zero; the remaining KE is entirely from the unchanged horizontal component.
- At t2 (impact): KE is the largest (1393 J). After the top, gravity speeds the mass up again as it falls, and because it lands at the base of the cliff (below the launch height) it has lost gravitational potential energy relative to t0, which has been converted to kinetic energy, so its KE exceeds the launch value.
The pattern (high, then minimum, then highest) reflects KE being lost to gravitational potential energy on the way up and regained, with extra, on the way down past the launch height.
(b) [3 marks]. Horizontal KE is constant, so the minimum KE at t1 is all horizontal:
At t0 the vertical KE is J, so (upward).
At t2 the vertical KE is J, so (downward).
Taking up as positive and using with m s^-1:
Marker's note. In (a) explain the minimum at the top (vertical velocity zero, horizontal KE remains) and why the impact KE exceeds the launch KE (lower final height). In (b) split the KE into horizontal and vertical parts, assign the correct signs to the vertical velocity, and add the times carefully.
Question 35 (6 marks)
Pu-238 in a radioisotope generator undergoes alpha decay: Pu-238 (238.0495 u) -> U-234 (234.0409 u) + alpha (4.0026 u).
(a) Show that the energy released by one decay is 9.0 x 10^-13 J. (3 marks)
(b) At launch the generator contains 9.0 x 10^24 atoms of Pu-238 (half-life 87.7 years). Calculate the total energy produced by the generator during the first ten years after launch. (3 marks)
Show worked solution
(a) [3 marks]. The mass defect is
Converting to kilograms (1 u = 1.661 x 10^-27 kg) and using :
(b) [3 marks]. First find how many atoms decay in ten years. The decay constant is
The number remaining after 10 years is .
The number that have decayed is
Each decay releases 9.0 x 10^-13 J, so the total energy is
Marker's note. In (a) calculate the mass defect, convert u to kg (or use 931.5 MeV per u), then apply with all steps shown. In (b) plan the path: decay constant, atoms decayed in ten years, then multiply by the per-decay energy from (a).
General marker feedback
Stronger responses across the paper: read each question carefully and answered every part; planned extended responses so the information flowed logically; integrated correct scientific terms and showed clear cause-and-effect reasoning; engaged with the stimulus and referred to it; showed full working in calculations including formulas and substitution; included correct units and directions for vector quantities; and used the constants and formulae on the data and formulae sheets with the correct SI units and prefixes.
Use this paper well
- Sit the paper under exam conditions (180 minutes, 100 marks).
- Mark yourself against the official NESA marking notes.
- Compare against the Physics hub to find the syllabus dot points this paper tested.
