VCE Physics Units 3 and 4 exam structure, scaling and study plan: The 2026 guide

Study guide18 min readUpdated 7 Oct 2026

Quick answer

VCE Physics Units 3-4 are assessed as 50 percent school-assessed coursework (split across SACs covering motion, fields, electromagnetism, light, matter and the student-designed practical investigation) and 50 percent end-of-year exam (a two-and-a-half-hour paper with 20 multiple-choice questions and 100 marks of short-answer and extended-response items, total 120 marks); the subject typically scales up by a couple of study-score points, and the top-band study plan rests on disciplined SAC preparation, methodical exam working that always names the physics principle, and a rotation of past papers marked against VCAA's published exam reports.

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What this guide is for
Assessment overview
Exam structure in detail
The formula and data sheet
Scaling history
Exam day strategy
Week-by-week study plan
Past paper rotation
Cross-links
Check your knowledge

What this guide is for

VCE Physics Units 3 and 4 are graded on a 50-50 split between school assessment and the external exam. Students who plan around that split, who know how the exam paper is structured, and who understand how Physics is scaled into the ATAR, finish with the smallest gap between effort and outcome. This guide walks through assessment, exam structure, scaling, equipment and a study plan.

Assessment overview

The total VCE Physics study score for Units 3 and 4 is built from three components.

Unit 3 SACs: School-assessed tasks across the unit, contributing toward the SAC component of the study score. SAC types include data analysis, problem-solving tests, and short response under timed conditions. Common Unit 3 SACs cover motion in two dimensions, fields (gravitational, electric, magnetic), and electromagnetic induction (Faraday's law, generators, transformers).
Unit 4 SACs: An Outcome 1 task and the student-designed scientific investigation (Area of Study 2), assessed as a scientific poster of no more than 600 words plus logbook entries (covered in the dedicated practical investigation guide).
End-of-year examination: A single two-and-a-half-hour paper contributing 50 percent. All Unit 3 and Unit 4 content is examinable.

The weightings are set in the Physics Study Design (Units 3 and 4 from 2024): Unit 3 School-assessed Coursework 30 percent, Unit 4 School-assessed Coursework 20 percent and the end-of-year examination 50 percent.

Exam structure in detail

The exam is held in October or November. Fifteen minutes of reading time, two and a half hours of writing time.

Section A: multiple choice. 20 questions, each worth 1 mark. Topics are sampled across both units, with a typical balance of around 10 questions on Unit 3 content (motion, fields, electromagnetism) and 10 on Unit 4 (light, matter, waves). Each question has four options, only one correct, no negative marking. Around 30 minutes is the right allocation.

Section B: short answer and extended response. 100 marks across 12-15 questions. Item sizes range from 2 marks (a single calculation) to 10 marks (a multi-part question spanning a topic). Two hours is the right allocation, with the last 10 minutes for review.

The marks bar and the time bar do not line up: Section B carries about 85 percent of the marks but is given only 73 percent of the writing time, so spend roughly one minute per mark and protect the review window.

Typical Section B item types:

Calculation with multiple parts. Identify the principle, write the formula, substitute, solve. Marks are distributed across method, substitution, calculation and units.
Explanation. Describe a phenomenon in words. Mark schemes reward correct use of physics terminology and explicit cause-and-effect chains.
Compare and contrast. Often field-related (electric vs gravitational field, AC vs DC generator).
Graph reading or sketching. Read a value, identify a gradient or area, sketch a relationship.
Design or critique. Suggest an experimental modification or critique a proposed setup.

The formula and data sheet

VCAA provides a two-page formula and data sheet with the exam paper. You may not annotate your own version into the exam, but you must rehearse with the official sheet so the page layout becomes familiar.

Sheet 1 covers Unit 3: kinematics, projectile motion, circular motion ( $F = mv^2/r$ , $a = v^2/r$ ), Newton's universal gravitation ( $F = GMm/r^2$ , $g = GM/r^2$ ), orbital motion (Kepler's third $T^2/r^3 = 4\pi^2/(GM)$ ), electric field and potential, magnetic force ( $F = qvB$ , $F = nBIL$ ), Faraday's law ( $\varepsilon = -N\,\mathrm{d}\Phi/\mathrm{d}t$ ), transformer turns ratio.

Sheet 2 covers Unit 4: wave equation $v = f\lambda$ , double-slit fringe spacing $\Delta x = \lambda L / d$ , Snell's law, photon energy $E = hf$ , photoelectric equation $E_{k,\max} = hf - \phi$ , de Broglie $\lambda = h/p$ , special relativity time dilation $t = t_0/\sqrt{1 - v^2/c^2}$ , length contraction, mass-energy $E = mc^2$ .

Constants panel: $g = 9.8$ m/s $^2$ , $c = 3.0 \times 10^8$ m/s, $h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34}$ J s ( $= 4.14 \times 10^{-15}$ eV s), $e = 1.6 \times 10^{-19}$ C, $G = 6.67 \times 10^{-11}$ N m $^2$ /kg $^2$ , $m_e = 9.1 \times 10^{-31}$ kg.

Scaling history

VCE Physics is a moderately scaled subject. In VTAC's 2025 Scaling Report a study score of 30 scaled to 32, a study score of 40 to 42 and a study score of 45 to 47. Check the current VTAC report before relying on any figure.

Practical implications:

A study score of 30 in Physics is broadly equivalent to a slightly higher score in a less-scaled subject for ATAR purposes.
Strong students should not avoid Physics on scaling grounds; the scale-up is reliable.
Always check the current year's scaling report at VTAC before finalising assumptions; scaling shifts slightly year to year as cohort strength changes.

Exam day strategy

Reading time (15 min): Skim Section A. Mark obviously easy questions. In Section B, identify any question worth more than 6 marks and read it carefully so it can develop in your mind during writing time.
Section A (30 min): Aim for 1.5 minutes per question. Flag harder items for return. Do not leave any blank; there is no penalty for guessing.
Section B (110 min): Spend roughly one minute per mark. A 6-mark question deserves 6 minutes. Always show working: VCAA awards method marks for naming the principle and writing the symbolic formula, even if the final arithmetic is wrong.
Review (10 min): Re-check Section A flags, units, significant figures, and any obvious oversights.

Week-by-week study plan

A 16-week plan (start of Term 1 to end of Term 3, with the exam in October) for a target study score of 40-plus.

Weeks 1-4: Unit 3 AoS 1: Motion in two dimensions. Master projectile motion, circular motion, Newton's laws, momentum, impulse. One SAC.
Weeks 5-8: Unit 3 AoS 2: Fields. Gravitational, electric, magnetic, comparison. One SAC.
Weeks 9-10: Unit 3 AoS 3: Electromagnetic induction, Faraday's law, generators, transformers, DC motor. One SAC.
Weeks 11-14: Unit 4 AoS 1: Light and matter. Photoelectric effect, atomic spectra, de Broglie, wave-particle duality. Begin Unit 4 practical investigation planning.
Weeks 15-18: Unit 4 AoS 1 (continued) and AoS 2: Special relativity, the wave model of light, interference and mass-energy. Scientific investigation poster and logbook due.
Weeks 19-22: Exam preparation: Past papers under timed conditions. Average around 4-5 past papers, every one marked carefully against the published exam report.

VCAA's exam reports are the highest-leverage revision resource. Each year's report identifies the specific errors made by the cohort, often with sample student responses showing where marks were lost. Read every exam report from 2018 onwards before sitting the exam.

Past paper rotation

Twelve past papers (2014-2025) are publicly available from VCAA. The pre-2017 papers are slightly less aligned to the current study design (some topics have moved) but the question style is identical. A workable rotation is one paper per week from Week 18, with the most recent three papers reserved for the final two weeks (full simulation conditions).

Cross-links

For worked examples in each Area of Study, see the VCE Physics worked exam problems by AoS guide. For the Unit 4 practical investigation poster, see the VCE Physics practical investigation guide.

Check your knowledge

A broad VCAA-style mix across motion, fields, electromagnetism, light/quantum, relativity and practical investigation, exactly the shape of the November paper. Attempt under exam conditions before checking the solutions block.

Define peak EMF for a rotating generator coil and state the formula in terms of $N$ , $A$ , $B$ and angular frequency $\omega$ . (2 marks)
A SUVAT motion problem: a ball is thrown vertically up with $u = 24.0 \ \text{m s}^{-1}$ from a 30.0 m cliff. Take $g = 9.80 \ \text{m s}^{-2}$ down. (a) Find the maximum height above the cliff. (b) Find the time to hit the ground at the base of the cliff. (c) Find the speed at the ground. (5 marks)
A car of mass 1200 kg rounds a flat unbanked curve of radius 50.0 m at 18.0 m s $^{-1}$ . (a) Calculate the required centripetal force. (b) State the coefficient of static friction needed. (c) State and justify whether the car is more likely to slide on a wet or a dry road. (4 marks)
(a, 3) A transformer steps 230 V mains down to 12 V for a low-voltage halogen circuit. If the load draws 4.0 A on the secondary, calculate the primary current assuming ideal behaviour. (b, 3) Identify two reasons real transformers are less than 100 percent efficient. (6 marks)
Light of wavelength 480 nm strikes a metal of work function 1.95 eV. (a) Calculate the photon energy in eV. (b) Calculate the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons in eV and in J. (c) Calculate the stopping voltage. (5 marks)
(a, 3) An astronaut on a spacecraft travelling at $v = 0.80c$ measures her trip from Earth to a star as taking 6.0 years of proper time. Calculate the time elapsed on Earth and the distance in Earth's frame to the star. (b, 3) Calculate the rest energy and the total energy of the spacecraft assuming a rest mass of $1.0 \times 10^{5} \ \text{kg}$ . (6 marks)
A practical-investigation analysis: a student measures projectile range $R$ for launch angles $\theta = 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60 \ \text{degrees}$ at fixed initial speed. Results (degrees, m): (10, 4.5), (20, 8.1), (30, 10.4), (40, 11.5), (50, 11.6), (60, 10.4). (a) State the theoretical formula for projectile range on a horizontal plane. (b) Identify the optimum launch angle from the data and compare with theory. (c) Using the 40-degree point and the theoretical formula, infer the launch speed (take $g = 9.80 \ \text{m s}^{-2}$ ). (6 marks)
(a, 3) A satellite is in a circular orbit at $r = 4.22 \times 10^{7} \ \text{m}$ (geostationary radius). Calculate the orbital speed and the period in hours. ( $G = 6.67 \times 10^{-11} \ \text{N m}^{2} \text{kg}^{-2}$ , $M_E = 5.98 \times 10^{24} \ \text{kg}$ .) (b, 2) State the practical significance of geostationary orbit. (5 marks)

Solutions

Q1: Peak EMF is the maximum value of the sinusoidal voltage induced in a rotating coil generator. $\varepsilon_{peak} = NAB\omega$ , where $N$ is number of turns, $A$ is coil cross-sectional area, $B$ is the uniform magnetic flux density, and $\omega = 2\pi f$ is the angular rotation rate.
Q2: (a) At max height $v = 0$ . $v^2 = u^2 - 2g s \Rightarrow s = u^2 / 2g = (24)^2 / 19.6 = 29.4 \ \text{m}$ . (b) Take up as positive, ground is $-30.0 \ \text{m}$ from cliff top. $s = ut - \frac{1}{2}g t^2 \Rightarrow -30.0 = 24.0 t - 4.90 t^2 \Rightarrow 4.90 t^2 - 24.0 t - 30.0 = 0$ . $t = (24.0 + \sqrt{576 + 588}) / 9.80 = (24.0 + 34.1)/9.80 = 5.93 \ \text{s}$ . (c) $v = u - g t = 24.0 - 9.80 \times 5.93 = -34.1 \ \text{m s}^{-1}$ , i.e. 34.1 m s $^{-1}$ downward.
Q3: (a) $F_c = mv^2/r = 1200 \times (18.0)^2 / 50.0 = 1200 \times 324 / 50.0 = 7.78 \times 10^{3} \ \text{N}$ . (b) Required $\mu = F_c / (mg) = 7780 / (1200 \times 9.80) = 0.661$ . (c) On a wet road the coefficient of static friction is typically 0.4 or lower, well below the 0.66 required, so the car would slide outward. A dry sealed road usually offers $\mu \approx 0.7-0.9$ , marginal but feasible.
Q4: (a) Ideal transformer: $V_p I_p = V_s I_s$ , so $I_p = 4.0 \times 12 / 230 = 0.209 \ \text{A}$ . (b) (i) Resistive ( $I^2 R$ ) losses in the primary and secondary windings; (ii) eddy currents and hysteresis losses in the iron core (mitigated by laminating the core and using soft iron, but never zero); (iii) leakage flux that does not couple all primary turns to all secondary turns.
Q5: (a) $E = hc/\lambda = 1240 / 480 = 2.583 \ \text{eV}$ . (b) $KE_{max} = 2.583 - 1.95 = 0.633 \ \text{eV} = 0.633 \times 1.60 \times 10^{-19} = 1.01 \times 10^{-19} \ \text{J}$ . (c) $V_s = KE_{max} / e = 0.633 \ \text{V}$ .
Q6: (a) $\gamma = 1/\sqrt{1 - 0.64} = 1/\sqrt{0.36} = 1.667$ . Earth time $= \gamma \tau_0 = 1.667 \times 6.0 = 10.0 \ \text{years}$ . Distance (Earth frame) $= 0.80 c \times 10.0 \ \text{yr} = 8.0 \ \text{light-years}$ . (b) Rest energy $E_0 = mc^2 = 1.0 \times 10^{5} \times (3.00 \times 10^{8})^2 = 9.00 \times 10^{21} \ \text{J}$ . Total energy $E = \gamma E_0 = 1.667 \times 9.00 \times 10^{21} = 1.50 \times 10^{22} \ \text{J}$ .
Q7: (a) For projectile launch on a horizontal plane, $R = (u^2 \sin 2\theta)/g$ . (b) The data peaks at 40 or 50 degrees (both near 11.5 m), bracketing the theoretical 45-degree optimum. The pair-symmetric values ( $R(10) = R(80)$ , $R(20) = R(70)$ , etc.) are also consistent with $\sin 2\theta$ . (c) From 40 degrees and $R = 11.5 \ \text{m}$ : $u^2 = R g / \sin 2\theta = 11.5 \times 9.80 / \sin 80^\circ = 112.7 / 0.985 = 114.4 \ \text{m}^2 \text{s}^{-2}$ , so $u = 10.7 \ \text{m s}^{-1}$ .
Q8: (a) $v = \sqrt{GM_E/r} = \sqrt{6.67 \times 10^{-11} \times 5.98 \times 10^{24} / 4.22 \times 10^{7}} = \sqrt{9.45 \times 10^{6}} = 3.07 \times 10^{3} \ \text{m s}^{-1}$ . Period $T = 2\pi r / v = 2\pi \times 4.22 \times 10^{7} / 3.07 \times 10^{3} = 8.63 \times 10^{4} \ \text{s} = 24.0 \ \text{hours}$ . (b) A satellite at this radius orbits in exactly one sidereal day and so remains over the same point on the equator. This is the basis of geostationary communications and weather satellites: ground antennas need not track them.